新版英语国家概况—选择题
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The United Kingdom is located in ____.
A. northern Europe B. western Europe
C. northwestern Europe D. southeastern Europe
2. The two large islands that make up the British Isles are ____.
A. Scotland and Ireland
B. Britain and Scotland
C. Great Britain and Northern Ireland
D. Great Britain and Ireland
3. The British Empire was replaced by the British Commonwealth or the
Commonwealth of Nations in ____.
A. 1921 B. 1931
C. 1945 D. 1950
4. The Commonwealth of Nations is an association of independent countries
____.
A. that were once colonies of Britain
B. that have a large number of British immigrants
C. that have close relations with Britain
D. that have fought on the side of Britain in the two world wars
5. The English Channel separates the island of Great Britain from ____.
A. Denmark B. Belgium
C. France D. the Netherlands
6. England has three main land regions. They are the Southwestern Plateau,
the Pennines, and ___.
A. the Eastern Plain B. the Highland
C. the Central Lowlands D. the Southern Uplands
7. Scotland occupies the ____ third of the island of Great Britain in the
British Isles.
A. southern B. northern
C. eastern D. western
8. Northern Ireland, which takes up the northern fifth of Ireland, is a
fourth political division of ____.
A. the United Kingdom B. Ireland
C. Scotland D. Wales
9. Britain’s longest rivers are ____.
A. the Severn and the Clyde B. the Thames and the Clyde
C. the Clyde and the Humber D. the Severn and the Thames
10. The largest lake in the British Isles is ____.
A. Loch Lomond B. Loch Neagh
C. Windermere D. Ullswater
11. Britain’s climate is influenced by____, a warm ocean current that passes
the western coast of the British Isles and warms them.
A. the North Atlantic Drift B. the Brazil Current
C. the Labrador Current D. the Falkland Current
12. The English people and the English language were born from the union
of ____.
A. the Angles and the Saxons
B. Germanic conquerors and the Norman French
C. Danes or Vikings and the Norman French
D. Norman conquerors and the defeated Anglo-Saxons
13. Generally speaking the English southerners speak the type of English
closer to ____.
A. the Cockney B. the Queen’s English
C. the Gaelic D. the BBC English
14. Although Wales has been united with England for more than 400 years, the
Welsh has kept alive ____.
A. their own language B. their own literature
C. their own tradition D. All of the above
15. The Eisteddfod is a(n) ____ festival of poetry, music and other arts.
A. English B. Scottish
C. Welsh D. Irish
16. Nowadays the Gaelic language, which is an ancient____, is still heard in
the Highlands and the Western Isles.
A. Scottish language B. English language
C. Irish language D. Celtic language
17. Many Scottish names begin with M’, Mc or Mac, which means__
A. father of B. sun of
C. son of D. some of
18. In Northern Ireland ____ make up the dominant group.
A. Roman Catholics B. English Protestants
C. non-religious people D. Jewish people
19. Northern Ireland is small, but it is significant because of the__
A. the economic problems B. the political troubles
C. the immigration issues D. the national identity
20. About three million people have migrated to Britain since World War ll.
They are mainly from the West Indies, India and____.
A. Indonesia B. Singapore
C. Hong Kong D. Pakistan
key 1.C 2.D 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.B 1l.A 12.D 13.D l4.D 15.C 16.D 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.D
Exercises 2
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The first known settlers of Britain were the ____.
A. Celts B. Iberians
C. Beaker Folk D. Romans
2. The Celts' religion was ____.
A. Buddhism B. Islam
C. Druidism D. Christianity
3. Roman control was only effective in ____.
A. Scotland B. Wales
C. London D. The southeast of Britain
4. Christianity was first brought to England by the ____.
A. Romans B. Celts
C. Anglo-Saxons D. Danes
5. The Romans remained in control of Britain for nearly 400 years and they
pulled out in ____.
A. 306 AD B. 410 AD
C. 446 AD D. 1066 AD
6. Which of the following tribes came to Britain first?
A. The Angles. B. The Saxons.
C. The Gaels. D. The Jutes.
7. ____ became the first real king of England, though he did not assume that
style.
A. Offa B. Egbert
C. Vortigern D. Hengist
8. ____ became the first Archbishop of Canterbury.
A. Columba B. Ethelbert
C. St. Augustine D. Egbert
9. The Vikings began to attack various parts of England from the end of the
____century.
A. 7th B. 8th
C. 9th D.10th
10. Who were the ancestors of the English and the founders of England?
A. The Anglo-Saxons. B. The Normans.
C. The Vikings. D. The Romans
11. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Alfred the Great started the English navy.
B. Alfred the Great reorganized the Saxon any, making it more
efficient.
C. Alfred the Great established schools and formulated a legal System.
D. Alfred the Great impose a tax, called the Danegeld, on the Saxons.
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Canute was chosen by the Witan as king of England.
B. Canute was a warrior king and fought many battles against the
Normans.
C. Canute divided power between Danes and Saxons.
D. Canute forced Malcolm II, king of the Scots, to recognize him as
overlord.
13. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Edward the Confessor was more French than English.
B. Edward the Confessor filled his court with 'foreign' favorites.
C. Edward the Confessor was on very good terms with his father-in-law,
Earl Godwin.
D. Edward the Confessor appointed a Norman priest Archbishop of
Canterbury.
14. When Edward the Confessor died, ____was chosen by the Witan as king Of
England.
A. the king of Norway
B. Harold Godwinson, Earl of Wessex
C. Edgar, Edward's nephew
D. Tostig, the deposed Earl of Northumbria
15. Tostig, Harold's brother, joined____, and made an attempt to recover his
lost earldom of Northumbria.
A. Harold Hardrada, King of Norway
B. Edgar, Edward's nephew
C. Malcolm II, King of the Scots
D. Hardicanute
16. William, Duke of Normandy, fought King Harold of England at the Battle of
Hastings in____.
A. 1086 B. 1066
C. 1035 D. 1381
17. William won the Battle of Hastings. Later, on____, he was crowned king of
England.
A. Easter Day B. St. Andrew's Day
C. Christmas Day D. Boxing Day
18. William, Duke of Normandy, is now known as____.
A. William the Confessor B. William Lion-Heart
C. the father of the British navy D. William the Conqueror
19. Most of the land belonging to the Saxons was confiscated by William and
given to____.
A. the Norman barons B. the Danes
C. the Irish D. the Scots
20. The Norman Conquest is perhaps ____event in English history.
A. a trifling B. the best-known
C. a horrifying D. a sensational
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B l0. A 11. D 12. B l3. C l4. B l5. A 16. B 17. C l8. D 19. A 20. B
Exercises 3
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. In the reign of William I, the ____were at the bottom of the feudal scale.
A. knights B. villeins
C. lesser nobles D. freemen
2. The Domesday Book was completed in____.
A. 1086 B. 1085
C. 1087 D. 1006
3. When William I died in Normandy in ____he left England to his second son
William.
A. 1100 B. 1153
C. 1087 D. 1135
4. William II was known as William Rufus because of his____
A. independence B. efficiency
C. filial piety D. red complexion
5. ____ was the founder of the Plantagenet dynasty and ruled England for 35
years.
A. Henry I B. King Stephen
C. Henry II D. Count of Anjou
6. William Rufus (William II) was killed by an arrow when he was hunting
in____ in August l100.
A. the New Forest B. Pevensey
C. Winchester D. Gloucester
7. Henry II took some measures to bring the disorders of ____reign to an end.
A. Henry I's B. King Stephen's
C. William II's D. Edward the Confessor's
8. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Henry II did some renovations of castles built in Stephen's time.
B. Henry II recalled grants of Royal lands made by Stephen.
C. Henry II strengthened the powers of his sheriffs.
D. Henry II relied for armed support upon a militia made up of English
Freemen.
9. Henry II divided the country into ____circuits and appointed traveling
judges to each of them.
A. three B. four
C. five D. six
10. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The Bishop's courts could punish by means of censure.
B. The Bishop's courts could inflict corporal punishment.
C. The Bishop's courts could punish by means of excommunication.
D. The Bishop's courts could punish by mean of penance.
11. After Thomas Becket rejected the Constitutions of Clarendon Henry II____.
A. appointed him Chancellor of England
B. made him Archbishop of Canterbury
C. drove him into exile
D. increased the Jurisdiction of the church courts
12. Thomas Becket spent ____years on the continent and returned to England in
1l70.
A. four B. five
C. six D. seven
13. The Great Charter (or Magna Carta) was signed by King John at Runnymede
in____.
A. 1162 B. 1164
C. 1210 D. 1215
14. Simon de Montfort summoned in____ the Great Council to meet at
Westminster, together with two knights from each county and two citizens
from each town.
A. 1242 B. 1258
C. 1265 D. 1266
15. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. In the 13th century a Black Rod went between the two Houses of
Parliament for liaison and to discipline the members.
B. In the 13th century Parliament only met by royal invitation.
C. In the 13th century Parliament's role was to offer advice, not to
make decisions.
D. In the 13th century the most important part of Parliament was the
House of Lords.
16. During the reign of ____, Wales was brought under English rule.
A. Henry III B. Edward I
C. Edward II D. Edward III
17. ____ became the first prince to hold the title of Prince of Wales, which
continues to be borne by the eldest son of the reigning monarch.
A. Richard I B. Henry III
C. Edward II D. Edward III
18. The chief demand of the peasants during the Peasant Uprising of 1381
was____.
A. the abolition of villeinage
B. the punishment of the King's ministers
C. the increase of wages
D. the reform of the church
19. Wat Tyler was killed by William Walworth, ____.
A. Archbishop of York B. Mayor of London
C. Archbishop of Canterbury D. the Treasurer
20. The Peasant Uprising of 1381 did not direct against____.
A. the rich clergy B. the lawyers
C. the landowners D. the town traders
1. B 2. A 3.C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. D l0. B 11. C l2. C 13. D l4. C 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. A l9. B 20. D
Exercises 4
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1.The name of Wars of the Roses was, in fact, coined by the great 19th
century novelist ____.
A. Charles Dickens B. George Elliot
C. Sir Walter Scott D. Charlotte Bronte
2. Although the Wars of the Roses were fought intermittently for ____ years,
ordinary people were little affected and went about their business as
usual.
A. 20 B. 30
C. 40 D. 50
3. No less than____ nobles of royal blood were killed in the Wars of the
Roses.
A. 80 B. 90
C. 100 D. 110
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Henry VII refilled the royal treasury through loans, subsidies,
property levies and fines.
B. Henry VII forbade the nobles to keep excessive power.
C. Henry VII built up England's navy and foreign trade.
D. Henry VII completely neglected parliament as though it never
existed.
5. Henry VIII declared himself Supreme Head of the Church of England in ____.
A. 1529 B. 1534
C. 1535 D. 1547
6. Queen Mary burnt at stake some ____men and women who refused to change
back to the Catholic faith.
A. 300 B. 350
C. 400 D. 450
7. Mary died childless and her half-sister Elizabeth came to the throne as
Elizabeth I in ____.
A. 1547 B. 1558
C. 1588 D. 1603
8. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Elizabeth I broke Mary's ties with Rome.
B. Elizabeth I restored her father's independent Church of England.
C. Elizabeth I's religious reform was a compromise of views.
D. Elizabeth I's religious settlement was acceptable to both extreme
Protestants and ardent Catholics.
9. The Renaissance began in northern Italy in the early ____century, and was
typified by the universal genius of Leonardo Da Vinci.
A. 11th B. 12th
C. 13th D. 14th
10. The English Renaissance is said to have begun in ____.
A. 1422 B. 1478
C. 1485 D. 1495
11. James VI of Scotland succeeded Elizabeth I and became James I of England
in ____.
A. 1601 B. 1603
C. 1615 D. 1625
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The Puritans believed that the Reformation had gone too far.
B. The Puritans became very powerful in Parliament.
C. The Puritans were very happy when they heard that James had become
king of England.
D. The Puritans called for a purer form of worship.
13. The Puritans suspected James I of England being a secret ____because of
his pro-Spanish foreign policy and his son's Spanish marriage alliance.
A. Buddhist B. Catholic
C. Protestant D. Muslim
14. In ____ a small group of Puritans sailed from Plymouth in the Mayflower,
and found New Plymouth in America, Britain's first settlement in the New
World.
A. 1614 B. 1615
C. 1620 D. 1621
15. The Great Civil War, as it became known, lasted from ____ until 1646.
A. 1639 B. 1640
C. 1641 D. 1642
16. When the First Civil War broke out ____men were at Charles I's command.
A. 1,000 B. 2,000
C. 3,000 D. 4,000
17. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Oliver Cromwell became Lord Protector of the Commonwealth of England
in 1653 by the Petition of Right.
B. Oliver Cromwell crushed without mercy a rebellion in Ireland.
C. Oliver Cromwell suppressed the Levellers, a group within his own
army who advocated total religious and social equality.
D. Oliver Cromwell replaced the Rump with an assembly largely chosen by
himself.
18. In 1660 the monarchy was restored and Charles I's son was brought back
from ____, where he had fled for safety.
A. Flanders B. France
C. Holland D. Germany
19. After the Restoration, Parliament passed a series of severe laws called
____against the Puritans, now known as Conformists.
A. Agreement of People B. The Petition of Right
C. The Clarendon Code D. The Act of Supremacy
20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The Bill of Rights excluded any Roman Catholics from the succession.
B. The Bill of Rights confirmed the principle of parliamentary
supremacy.
C. The Bill of Rights guaranteed free speech within both the House of
Lords and the House of Commons.
D. The Bill of Rights requested that no taxes should be raised without
consent of Parliament.
1.C 2. B 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.D 10.C 11.B 12.A 13. B 14. C 15.D 16.A 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.D
Exercises 5
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. Traditional farming involved the open field village, a system that dated
back to the ____century.
A. 4th B. 5th
C. 6th D. 7th
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The open field system provided a good opportunity to experiment.
B. The open field system wasted land.
C. The open field system was wasteful of labor and time.
D. The open field system made livestock farming difficult.
3. Which of the following statements is NOT considered a characteristic of
farming in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?
A. Use of artificial fertilizer.
B. Introduction of new agricultural machinery.
C. The 'Open-field' system.
D. A system of crop rotation.
4. Land enclosure was a disaster for the ____evicted from their land by the
enclosures.
A. landlords B. tenants
C. farmers D. wage laborers
5. In Ireland and Scottish Highlands land enclosure led to mass emigration,
particularly to ____.
A. Africa B. Eastern Europe
C. Asia D. The New World
6. By the early 19th century, Britain had a road network of some ____miles.
A. 115,000 B. 120,000
C. 125,000 D. 130,000
7. In England no females were allowed to vote in national elections before
____.
A. 1918 B. 1920
C. 1928 D. 1945
8. In 1836 a group of ____and small shopkeepers formed the London Working
Men's Association.
A. householders B. tenants
C. skilled workers D. office workers
9. The six points of the People's Charter were achieved gradually over the
period of ____, although the sixth has never been practical.
A. 1836-1848 B. 1842-1848
C. 1848-1908 D. 1858-1918
10. Parliament passed the Combination Acts of 1799-1800 to forbid the
formation of ____.
A. a new government B. societies
C. communes D. unions
11. The Labor Party had its origins in the ____, which was formed in
January,1893.
A. Independent Labor Party
B. Grand National Consolidated Trade Union
C. Amalgamated Society of Engineers
D. Trade Union Congress
12. Thanks to the militant feminist movement of the ____led by Mrs. Pankhurst
before the First World War, votes were granted to women over 30 in 1918.
A. Luddites B. Suffragettes
C. Chartists D. Levellers
13. The spark of the First World War was struck at Sarajevo on June 28, ____,
when the Austrian Crown Prince Franz Ferdinand was assassinated by a
Serbian nationalist.
A. 1913 B. 1914
C. 1915 D. 1916
14. As a result of the First World War settlement the ____was established in
1920.
A. League of Nations B. British Commonwealth
C. British East India Company D. United Nations
15. After World War I political unrest in Britain led to ____general
elections in just over 5 years.
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
16. The Blitz radically changed the face of London for the first time since
____nearly 3 centuries earlier.
A. the Black Death B. the Great Fire
C. the Civil War D. the Great Plague
17. The foundations of ____was laid in the late 1940s, providing free medical
care for everyone and financial help for the old, the sick and the
unemployed.
A. the welfare state
B. the National Health Service
C. the compulsory education
D. the Women's Liberation Movement
18. In the 1960s Pop music underwent a revolution when the Beatles became
world famous and turned their hometown of ____into a place of pilgrimage.
A. Manchester B. Blackpool
C. Liverpool D. Sheffield
19. The 1970s saw the growth of ___in Wales and Scotland.
A. liberalism B. Marxism
C. chauvinism D. nationalism
20. Margaret Thatcher believed in the following except____.
A. self-reliance
B. the strengthening of trade unions
C. privatization
D. the use of monetary policies to control inflation
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.C 7. A 8.C 9. D 10.D 11.A 12.B 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.B
Exercises 7 (第 6章不考，所以省略，下同）
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The economic policy Britain pursued in the 1950s and 1960s was based on
the theory of ____.
A. Adam Smith B. John Maynard Keynes
C. Margaret Thatcher D. Karl Marx
2. In the 1970s Britain maintained the _____ growth rate and the _____
inflation rate among the developed countries.
A. lowest/lowest B. highest/highest
C. lowest/highest D. highest/lowest
3. Under Margaret Thatcher Britain experienced _______.
A. economic recession B. economic expansion
C. economic decline D. economic depression
4. In Britain service industries account for about ____ of its gross domestic
product (GDP).
A. one-third B. two-thirds
C. three-fifths D. four-fifths
5. The following are the reasons why British coal mining is today called a
"sick" industry except _____.
A. Britain has used up almost all coal deposits
B. the demand for British coal has declined
C. petroleum, water power, and electric power are replacing coal for
many purposes
D. the old British mines are narrow and deep, making it difficult to
sue machines fro mining.
6. Which of the following is not true of British iron and steel industry?
A. Britain's steel industry is declining.
B. No more new discoveries of iron ore have been found in Britain.
C. Supplies of iron ore are now mostly foreign.
D. Compared with newer plants in the world, Britain's steelworks are
not efficient.
7. Rolls-Royce is world famous for _____.
A. machine tools
B. household appliances
C. luxury automobiles
D. high-quality knives and hand tools
8. Why is it that Britain today imports more clothing than it exports?
A. British clothing is of poor quality.
B. Britain does not grow cotton.
C. Many countries with lower costs can produce clothing more cheaply
than the British can.
D. Britain has a highly developed transportation system.
9. The area between _____ and ______ is now often referred to as the
"Silicon Glen".
A. London/South Wales B. the Oxford/the Cambridge
C. London/the Cambridge D. Glasgow/Edinburgh
10. Which of the following is not true of Britain's agriculture?
A. British farming is highly mechanized.
B. Agriculture in Britain is intensive.
C. British farming is very efficient.
D. Britain's agriculture can produce enough food for its people.
11. Which area is called the Garden of England and is famous for beautiful
blossoms in spring?
A. The county of Kent in southeastern England.
B. The county of East Sussex in southern England.
C. The county of West Sussex in southern England.
D. The county of Essex in eastern England.
12. Britain once imported chiefly _____ and exported mostly ______.
A. manufactured products/raw materials
B. raw materials/manufactured products
C. foods/minerals
D. minerals/foods
13. Britain's leading customers and suppliers are France, Germany and _____.
A. Japan B. Belgium
C. the Netherlands D. the United States
14. Which of the following is not true of Britain's foreign trade?
A. The value of Britain's exports of goods usually exceeds the value of
its imports.
B. The value of Britain's imports of goods usually exceeds the value of
its exports.
C. Manufactured goods now account for about 85% of British imports and
about 80% of its exports.
D. Most of the United Kingdom's trade is with other developed
countries,especially other members of the European Union.
15. The European Union (EU) is an organization of 15 _____ that promotes
cooperation among its members.
A. European countries B. developed countries
C. Western European countries D. Southern European countries
16. Which of the following is not true of the European Union?
A. The United States is also a member of the EU.
B. The members of the EU cooperate in many areas, including politics
and economics.
C. The EU is a major economic unit.
D. The combined value of the union's imports and exports is greater
than that of any single country in the world.
17. Headquarters of the European Union are in ______.
A. Paris, France B. London, Britain
C. Berlin, Germany D. Brussels, Belgium
18. _____ started as a trading post of the Roman Empire about AD 43.
A. The City of Westminster B. The City of London
C. West End of London D. East End of London
19. Today, the City of London is the business center of London where _____
are located.
A. big supermarkets B. theatres and cinemas
C. large financial organizations D. restaurants and cafes
20. What is Lloyd's?
A. It is a famous bank.
B. It is a big department store.
C. It is a famous insurance company.
D. It is a large hotel.
1.B 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.D 10.D 11.A 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.C
Exercises 8
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. All criminal trials are held in open court because the criminal law
presumes the _____ of the accused until he has been proved guilty beyond
reasonable doubt.
A. guilt B. impartiality
C. innocence D. honesty
2. The jury consists of ordinary, independent citizens summoned by the
court: 12 in England, Wales and Northern Ireland, and ____ in Scotland.
A. 12 B. 13
C. 14 D. 15
3. People between the ages of _____ and 70 (65 in Scotland) whose names
appear on the electoral register, with certain exceptions, are liable for
jury service and their names are chosen at random.
A. 18 B. 19
C. 20 D. 21
4. Youth Courts try most cases involving people under _____.
A. 17 B. 18
C. 19 D. 20
5. The Crown Court sits at _____ centers and is presided over by High Court
Judges, full-time Circuit Judges and part-time Recorders.
A. 91 B. 92
C. 93 D. 94
6. The main courts of civil jurisdiction in England and Wales are the County
Courts of which there are _____.
A. 270 B. 271
C. 272 D. 273
7. In Northern Ireland civil cases up to the value of ￡_____ are dealt with
in county courts.
A. 14,000 B. 15,000
C. 16,000 D. 17,000
8. There are _____ police forces in England and Wales, 8 in Scotland and one
(the Royal Ulster Constabulary) 9n Northern Ireland.
A. 40 B. 41
C. 42 D. 43
9. Police officers are not allowed to join ____ or to go on strike.
A. a club B. a trade union
C. a political party D. the army
10. There are about 130 prison establishments in England and Wales and some
20 in Scotland, many of which were built in the ____ century.
A. 16th B. 17th
C. 18th D. 19th
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. D
Exercises 9
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The National Health Service was established in the United Kingdom in
_____.
A. 1946 B. 1947
C. 1948 D. 1949
2. Prescription charges do not apply to the following people except ____.
A. self-employed people
B. child under 16
C. war and armed forces disablement pensioners
D. women aged 60 and over and men aged 65 and over
3. NHS has suffered from under-funding in recent decades, as a result of
which many ______ people have been turning to private medical health care.
A. working class B. elderly
C. educated D. better-off
4. Britain ahs about ______ million adults with one or more disabilities, of
whom around 7 percent live in communal establishments.
A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. 7
5. Most pregnant working women receive their statutory maternity pay directly
from their employer for a maximum of _____ weeks.
A. 17 B. 18
C. 19 D. 20
6. The Church of England is not free to change its form of worship, as laid
down in _____ without the consent of Parliament.
A. the Bill of Rights
B. the Provisions of Oxford
C. the Constitutions of Clarendon
D. the Book of Common Prayer
7. The position of the Church of Scotland was defined in the Treaty of Union,
1707, and further safeguarded by the Church of Scotland Act, ______.
A. 1921 B. 1922
C. 1923 D. 1924
8. The Salvation Army is served by 1,800 officers (ordained ministers) and
runs more than _____ worship centers.
A. 500 B. 1,000
C. 1,500 D. 2,000
9. At Christmas, the home is decorated with the following except _____.
A. colorful paper chains B. leaves of holly and mistletoe
C. a young fir-tree D. firecrackers
10. Easter is traditionally associated with the following except ____.
A. the resurrection of Christ
B. the eating of Easter eggs
C. the custom of giving presents
D. the coming of spring
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C
Exercises 10
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. There are some ____ universities, including the Open University in
Britain.
A. 70 B. 80
C. 90 D. 100
2. Some _____ per cent of secondary schools in England are grant-maintained
(GM) self-governing schools.
A. 10 B. 15
C. 20 D. 25
3. The universities of Oxford and Cambridge date from the ____ centuries.
A. 12th and 13th B. 13th and 14th
C. 14th and 15th D. 15th and 16th
4. Over ____ science parks have been set up by higher education institutions
in conjunction with industrial scientists and technologists.
A. 10 B. 20
C. 30 D. 40
5. With about _____ daily and Sunday newspapers published nationwide, the
British public reads more newspapers than virtually any other country in
the world.
A. 110 B. 120
C. 130 D. 140
6. The BBC World Service broadcasts international news worldwide, using
English and ____ other languages.
A. 37 B. 38
C. 39 D. 40
7. In summer there are open-air theatres, including one in London's Regent's
Park, where ____ are performed, and the Minack Theatre, which is an open
cliffside near Land's End in Cornwall.
A. William Shakespeare's plays
B. Christopher Marlowe's plays
C. Ben Johnson's plays
D. George Bernard Shaw's plays
8. Pantomime is a kind of play based on a traditional fairy tale and per-
formed ____.
A. at Easter B. on New Year's Day
C. on St. Patrick's Day D. at Christmas time
9. Edinburgh International Festival of Music and Drama takes place for a
period of 3 to 4 weeks between ____ when Edinburgh becomes a center of
cultural activity.
A. July and August B. August and September
C. September and October D. October and November
10. In ____ each year the National Film Theatre hosts the London Film Fes-
tival, at which some 250 new films from all over the world are screened.
A. September B. October
C. November D. December
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C
到了美国部分 Exercises 14
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The annual population growth rate of the 1990s was ______.
A. 1% B. 0.9%
C. over 1% D. under 1%
2. A major source of population growth is ________.
A. immigration B. baby boom
C. rising birth rate D. larger number of young people
3. The immigrants spread unevenly across the country, with ______having the
largest percentage of immigrants.
A. Northeast B. the West
C. Midwest D. the South
4. ________was an important immigration spot in late 19th century and early
20th century.
A. Ellis Island B. San Francisco
C. Hawaii D. Miami
5. The three states that have seen the fastest growth in population in the
past 20 years are ______.
A. California, Arizona and New Mexico
B. California, Florida and Nevada
C. New Mexico, Texas and Florida
D. Arizona, Nevada and Florida
6. One of the reasons for the growth of population in Florida is because of
its _________.
A. expanding economy
B. large number of Cuban-Americans
C. climate
D. exotic food
7. More than _____of the population in the United States lived in city areas
in 1988.
A. 60% B. 75%
C. 90% D. 50%
8. The population between the age of 25 and 44 increased by 28.1% from 1980
to 1989 because ___________.
A. this was the period of large inflow of young immigrants
B. this was the birth age of the baby boomers.
C. the large number born during WW II reached this age bracket
D. those who were born in the period of baby boom reached this age
bracket
9. Up to the end of WW II, there were ______waves of large-scale emigration
to the United States.
A. four B. two
C. three D. None of the above
10. Between 1845 and 1854, about 1.5 million Irishmen emigrated to United
States because of __________.
A. famine B. English oppression
C. war D. Both A & B
11. During the third wave of immigration from 1890 to 1910, many came from
____.
A. Britain and the Netherlands B. Austria-Hungary and Russia
C. Japan and China D. Mexico and Cuba
12. According to historians and specialists in demography, there are _____
great population movement(s) in the history of the United States.
A. four B. three
C. five D. None of the above
13. In the last great population movement, a large number of people moved to
______.
A. the Northwest B. the sunbelt areas
C. the South D. the Southwest
14. Between 1960 and 1990, a large number of people moved from_____.
A. core cities to the suburbs B. rural areas to cities
C. small cities to large cities D. None of the above
15. The current situation of African-Americans presents ________.
A. a favorable picture B. a negative picture
C. a mixed picture D. an encouraging picture
16. Although legal, official discrimination has been abolished _______.
A. discrimination in employment still exists
B. discrimination in university admission still exists
C. poverty rate of the blacks is the highest among all racial and
ethnic groups
D. inequality and subtle discrimination still exist
17. The Cuban-Americans have done very well_________.
A. in Florida B. in business with Cuba
C. politically7 D. economically
18. The most important obstacle to Hispanic success in the labor market is
______.
A. the language problem B. their low education
C. their low education D. discrimination
19. Some people Asian-Americans owe their success to the Asian tradition
of_______.
A. education B. family and hard work
C. education D. B and C
20. One of the signs of the awakening of the American Indians is ________.
A. the reappearance of the "powwow"
B. the legal steps they are taking to recover land and resources that
have been grabbed form them illegally
C. their refusal to live on reservations
D. None of the above
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.D 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.D 17.D 18.B 19.D 20.B
Exercises 15
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The result of the War with Mexico in 1846 was _______.
A. American annexation of California and New Mexico
B. the independence of California and New Mexico
C. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico for the annexation of
California and New Mexico
D. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico
2. During the drafting of the Declaration of Independence and the drafting
of the Constitution, the issue of Negro slavery was _____.
A. not raised
B. raised but voted down
C. bitterly debated
D. raised but because of strong southern opposition it was put aside
for greater objective
3. Slave labor was widespread in the south because______.
A. the cold weather in the north was not suitable for Negro slaves
B. Negro slaves could not cope with machines in factories in the north
C. Negro Slaves were best suited for the kind of plantation economy in
the south
D. the north world not allow slavery to spread into their states
4. In the early 1850s, with the westward movement, the slavery issue became
a serious political issue endangering the unity of the country because
_____.
A. whether the future states formed as a result of the westward
movement should be free or slave world affect the balance of power
in the Senate
B. the south insisted that slavery should be allowed to spread into all
new territories.
C. the north refused to let slavery spread into new territories.
D. the north wanted to put and end to slavery
5. Why did President Lincoln issue the Emancipation Proclamation?
A. Because President Lincoln himself was an abolitionist.
B. Because he wanted to punish the slave-owners in those states which
broke away form the union.
C. Because he had no other alternative.
D. Because he realized that in order to win the war, he should make it
a just war against slavery so as to rally as many people as
possible under the banner of the Federal government.
6. President Lincoln was shot dead five days after________.
A. he made a speech at Gettysburg.
B. general Lee, commanding general of the Confederate army surrendered
his troops .
C. the adoption of the thirteenth Amendment.
D. a military victory of the Union force at Gettysburg.
7. The rapid development of American economy after the Civil War was due to
______.
A. the stable political environment and availability of capital
B. large pool or labor force because of free slaves, immigrants
C. scientific invention and government policy
D. All of the above
8. At the end of the 19th century. One of the strong trends in American
economy was ______.
A. the emergence of big trusts
B. the predominance of small factories
C. the frequent intervention in business by the government
D. the influence of foreign corporations
9. The place that Christopher Columbus landed was _______.
A. India
B. island in Asia
C. the current territory of the United States of America
D. islands in the now West Indies
10. The chief reason for early settlers to come to the New Continent was___.
A. to seek better opportunity
B. to escape religious persecution
C. to satisfy the urge for adventure
D. A and B
11. In American history, the Pilgrim fathers to those who came to Plymouth
on board of __________.
A. a French ship B. a British ship
C. Mayflower D. an Italian ship
12. One of the features of the early colonists which has strong influence on
the formation of American character is ___________.
A. religious intolerance B. respect for personal success
C. stress on community harmony D. None of the above
13. What were the causes of War of Independence?
A. The development of colonial economy led to demand for more power to
determine their own business.
B. the cruel exploitation of the colonies by the British government.
C. The sale of in the colonies.
D. A and B.
14. The clash at Concord and Lexington was ________.
A. the beginning of the War or independence?
B. the beginning of the second Continental Conference
C. a minor clash between the British and the colonists with no
significance
D. None of the above
15. The significance of the War of Independence is that _________.
A. it paved the way for the development of capitalism in North America
B. it initiated a period of bourgeois revolution against feudal rule or
colonial rule
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
16. The unusual feature of the Articles of Confederation was that______.
A. it provided for no king but a republic and was a written
constitution.
B. it decided that the United States of America was a republic with
central power in Congress, that most powers laid in hands of the
states and it was a written document
C. it was the first written constitution in the world and the emphasis
was on a strong central government
D. the written constitution did not provide for an executive branch
which could function as a government
17. The contradiction that arose at the Constitutional Conference of 1787
was contradiction between________.
A. big states and small states.
B. industrial-commercial interests and landed interests.
C. one house or two houses for Congress.
D. A and B
18. The Bill of Rights Amendments________.
A. dealt with procedural matters
B. included not only procedural guarantees but also guarantees of basic
rights for the individual
C. were adopted merely to satisfy those who opposed the Constitution
D. were reluctantly accepted by the Federalists
19. The impact of the War of 1812 on the development of the United States
was_______.
A. the realization of the importance of a strong national government
B. the reinvigoration of a sense of national unity
C. removal of obstacle to the westward movement
D. All of the above
20. The implications of the "Manifest Destiny" are______.
A. the legitimacy of American territorial expansion and American
obligation of the Spread of American value and institution.
B. the legitimacy of the westward movement
C. the Americans were doing the Lord's work in spreading American
democracy to other places
D. None of the above
1.C 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.D 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.D 10.D 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.D 18.B 19.D 20.A
Exercises 16
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. What was the main cause of the Second World War?
A. The main cause was big power struggle for control of the world.
B. It was the worldwide economic crisis.
C. It was the military expansion of Japan, and Germany.
D. Both B and C.
2. The consequence of the three neutrality acts of the United States was____.
A. to make the United States gain time to arm itself
B. to actually help the aggressors by making clear that the United
States would not intervene
C. to get the United States involved in the war
D. to prevent the United States form being dragged into the war
3. American war time objectives were ______.
A. the total defeat of Axis powers
B. the establishment of a postwar world order under American leadership
C. coordination of war efforts of the Soviet Union, Britain and the
United States
D. Both A and B
4. Overlord is a code name for ______.
A. American lend-lease assistance to the Soviet Union
B. the summit conference at Teheran
C. the allied landing at Normandy, France in 1944
D. the North African campaign
5. One of the important decisions at the Yalta Conference was ______.
A. the allied landing at Normandy
B. the setting-up of a world organization, the United Nations, to
manage peace and security after the war
C. coordinated efforts in war against Japan
D. None of the above
6. The most important features in the growth of American economy in the
early 20th cenruty were ______.
A. the use of steam and electricity as chief energy, the development of
lare corporation and the development of railway
B. the development of large corporation, urbanization and the
employment in production of new technology
C. the appearance of airplane, the use of electricity on a large scale
and urbanization
D. the rapid development of industry, railway and large cities
7. The Progressive Movement was ______.
A. an organized campaign with definite goals
B. a movement aiming at exposing the dark sides of society
C. not an organized campaign with efforts to improve people's living
standard
D. a number of diverse efforts aiming at achieving political, social
and economic reforms
8. In the political area, the Progressive Movement wanted to ______.
A. improve the living conditions of urban poor
B. reform the national government
C. change election systems in city and state governments and check
corruption
D. check corruption in city and state governments
9. The Progressive Movement wanted to ______ in order to stop big business
control.
A. initiate strict government regulation
B. have the government to fix prices
C. break up all the big businesses
D. do away with rebates
10. One of the contribution of Theodore Roosevelt as President was ______.
A. the banning of child labor
B. the giving of voting right to women
C. in the field of natural conservation
D. in urban renovation
11. One of the contributions of Woodrow Wilson was ______.
A. natural conservation
B. the construction of irrigation projects
C. the setting-up of the Federal Reserve Board and twelve Federal
Reserve Banks
D. the introduction of tariff increase and a low income tax
12. The policy the United States actually pursued in the first two years of
WWI was ______.
A. impartial neutrality B. partial neutrality
C. firm support of the Allies D. Pro-Ally partial neutrality
13. The essence of the Paris Peace Conference was .
A. to bring peace to Europe
B. to carve up the colonies of the defeated countries and to get war
compensation for the victors
C. to settle the colonial problem of the Ottoman Empire
D. to put the Fourteen Points into Practice
14. typically represented the world pattern between the two world wars _____.
A. The Versailles Treaty System
B. The Versailles Treaty System and the Washington Treaty System
C. The collapse of the German, Austro-Hungary and the Ottoman colonial
systems
D. Both B and C
15. Sacco and Vanzetti were sentenced to death and executed because ______.
A. of their radical political views
B. they were guilty of killing two people
C. they were members of KKK
D. they stole $ 16,000
16. One of the serious weaknesses in American economy in the 1920s was _____.
A. uncontrolled speculation in the stock market
B. tariff protection
C. huge profits of big businesses
D. too much control over the banking system
17. The serious economic crisis in the late 1920s and 1930s first brought
about by ______.
A. bank failures B. serious unemployment
C. farm foreclosures D. the stock market crash
18. The Hoover Administration ______ to deal with the economic crisis.
A. took effective measures
B. did not take any measure
C. asked the private sector
D. refused to take strong government action
19. Most of the measures F.D. Roosevelt took in the first hundred days he
was in the White House were to ______.
A. stop bank failures
B. prevent radical actions in the United States
C. prevent the further worsening of the economic situation and lessen
the personal sufferings of the people
D. prevent further worsening of the unstable political situation
20. The purpose of the New Deal measures was to ______.
A. save American democracy and the capitalist system
B. check the worsening of the economic situation
C. help people tie over the difficulty
D. increase American export
1.A 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.A 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.A
Exercises 17
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. Conflicts arose between the United States and the Soviet Union because___.
A. their common enemies Nazi Germany and Japan were defeated
B. They had very different concepts of postwar world order
C. the United States wanted cooperation with the Soviet Union but the
Soviet Union refused.
D. the soviet Union wanted cooperation with the United States but the
Untied States refused
2. The idea of containment was first brought up by ______.
A. Harry Truman B. Franklin D. Roosevelt
C. Marshall D. George Kennan
3. The essence of the Truman Doctrine was ______.
A. to provide economic and military support for any country which was
fighting internal Communist rebels or external Communist pressure
B. to provide aid for Greece and Turkey which were fighting against
Communism
C. to provide economic aid to needy countries
D. to give moral support to the struggle of free people
4. As a result of American economic aid under the Marshall Plan, Western
Europe _____.
A. managed to tie over the difficult years in the late 1940s
B. succeeded in solving the food problem
C. recovered from war destruction and its economy began to develop
D. became prosperous
5. It was _____ which started the Berlin blockade.
A. the Soviet Union B. the United States
C. Britain D. France
6. Why did the United States decide to go ahead and set up a separate German
state?
A. Because the United States wanted to rearm the Germans.
B. Because only in this way could German economy be reinvigorated.
C. Because the United States realized it was impossible to have a
unified Germany under American influence.
D. Because the Soviet Union first set up a separate German state in its
occupied zone.
7. The purpose of Marshall's mediation in China in 1945 and 1946 was ______.
A. to support the Kuomintang in starting a civil war
B. to pressure the Kuomintang into forming a coalition government with
the Communist Party as an equal partner.
C. to bring the two sides together for negotiations
D. to bring the Communist Party into a coalition government dominated
by Kuomintang and put Communist led troops under the command of the
coalition government
8. The Chinese government changed its timetable of liberation of Taiwan in
1950 because ______.
A. the Korean War broke out
B. the United States sent the 7th Fleet into the Taiwan Straits.
C. the Soviet Union did not support China's liberation of Taiwan then
D. the United States army was approaching the Yalu River
9. The Chinese Volunteers crossed the Yalu River and fought side by side
with the North Koreans until an armistice was signed in ______.
A. July 1952. B. July 1953.
C. July 1954. D. June 1953.
10. President Truman on March 21, 1947 issued an executive order, initiating
a comprehensive investigation of the loyalty of all federal employees.
This was the beginning of ______.
A. McCarthyism
B. Clearing out Soviet spies
C. widespread persecution of Communists and progressive people
D. persecution of federal employees
11. The trial of Alger Hiss proved ______.
A. that he was a Soviet spy
B. that he did not tell the truth in court
C. that he provided Soviet agent with secret information on atomic
weapon
D. None of the above
12. The Supreme Court played a role in whipping up the anticommunist hysteria
by ______.
A. upholding the constitutionality of the Smith Act
B. convicting 11 high-ranking Communist leaders
C. supporting the trial of Alger Hiss
D. supporting President Truman's executive order
13. What did the Little Rock Incident refer to?
A. It referred to a violent outburst of a thousand white in Clinton,
Tennessee against school desegregation.
B. It referred to an incident in Alabama in opposition to Supreme Court
decision on school desegregation.
C. It referred to Arkansas governor's use of state National Guard to
prevent African-American students from going to an all white school
in Little Rock and Federal government intervention to carry out
court decision.
D. It referred to Arkansas governor's use of state National Guard to
prevent African-American students from going to an all white school
in Little Rock.
14. The pillar industries for the postwar economic boom were ______.
A. information, space and biotechnology
B. textile, automobile and construction
C. defense, information and housing
D. automobile, housing and defense
15. During the Cuban Missile Crisis, there was ______ a nuclear war.
A. little danger of B. grave danger of
C. real intention for D. earnest preparation for
16. When ______,this was the beginning of American involvement in Vietnam.
A. the United States decided to provide France with military aid in
their fight in Vietnam
B. the United States started to provide aid for the South Vietnamese
government after the Geneva Conference in 1854
C. the United States sent more and more military advisers to South
Vietnam
D. the United States began to Americanize the war in Vietnam
17. The Paris Agreement was signed by the U.S. and North Vietnam in Jan. 1973
and the fall of Saigon was in ______.
A. April, 1973 B. April, 1975
C. Jan, 1975 D. None of the above
18. The conditions the People's Republic of China set for the establishment
of diplomatic relations with the United States were ______.
A. the withdrawal of the 7th Fleet from the straits and the end of
diplomatic relations with Taiwan
B. the cancellation of the mutual defense treaty and the end of
diplomatic relations with Taiwan.
C. the stop of 7th Fleet patrol in Taiwan straits, the cancellation of
the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations with
Taiwan
D. the withdrawal of all military forces from Taiwan, the cancellation
of the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations
with Taiwan
19. New Frontier and War on Poverty were programs initiated by ______.
A. President Kennedy
B. President Johnson
C. Presidents Kennedy and Johnson respectively
D. Presidents Johnson and Kennedy respectively
20. The Watergate Scandal refers to ______.
A. the break-in at the Watergate apartment-office complex in
Washington,D. C.
B. the break-in and Nixon's secret taping
C. the break-in, the cover up and Nixon's involvement in the cover up
D. Nixon's resignation
I. B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.C 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.D 19.C 20.C
Exercises 18
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The United States ranks ______ in the world in the total value of its
economic production.
A. first B. second
C. third D. fourth
2. The following are the factors that have contributed to the development of
the U.S. economy except ______.
A. the vast space and resources of the land
B. the ideals of freedom and economic opportunity
C. English as its national language
D. hard work by the people
3. Which of the following is not true of the U.S. economy?
A. It is based largely on a free enterprise system.
B. There is little government involvement in the economy
C. It is one of the least regulated economies in the world.
D. Many of the nation's basic industries are represented by only a few
major corporations.
4. The United States has vast expanses of fertile soil that is well suited to
______.
A. raising cattle B. growing crops
C. developing highways D. digging wells
5. Which of the following is not true of water resources in the United
States?
A. Water has contributed to the welfare of the country.
B. Lakes, rivers, and underground deposits supply water for households,
farms, and industries.
C. The nation uses about 400 billion gallons of water daily.
D. Households use more than half of this total.
6. Forests cover nearly ______ of the United States, and they yield many
valuable products.
A. a fourth B. a third
C. half D. two thirds
7. Which of the following is not true of mineral resources in the United
States?
A. The United States has large deposits of coal, iron ore, natural gas,
and petroleum.
B. The United States does not have to import any minerals from other
countries.
C. Mineral resources of the United States are well developed.
D. Major mineral resources that are scarce in the United States are
tin,manganese, and nickel.
8. What is the leading corn-producing state in the United States?
A. Nebraska. B. Minnesota.
C. Iowa. D. Indiana.
9. What is America's most important food crop?
A. Wheat. B. Rice.
C. Barley. D. Oat.
10. Which of the following is not true of U.S. agriculture?
A. It is the most efficient in the world.
B. About a third of the world's food exports come from U.S. farms.
C. The use of modern farm machinery and agricultural methods has helped
make U.S. farms the most efficient in the world.
D. The number of farms in the United States has increased since 1925.
11. The chief mineral products of the United States are in order of value,
_____ .
A. petroleum, natural gas, and coal
B. natural gas, petroleum, and coal
C. coal, petroleum, and natural gas.
D. coal, natural gas, and petroleum
12. Which state ranks first among the states in the value of its manufactured
goods.
A. New York. B. Ohio.
C. Texas. D. California.
13. Which of following is not true of U.S. manufacturing?
A. The value of American manufactured goods is greater than that of any
other country.
B. Manufacturing accounts for 18% of the U.S. gross domestic product.
C. Since the mid-1900's, the country's fastest-growing manufacturing
areas have been in the Midwest and Northeast.
D. Since the Mid-1900's, U.S. industries have turned increasingly to
automation.
14. Service industries account for about ______ of the U.S. gross domestic
product.
A. a third B. half
C. two thirds D. three fourths
15. Which of the following dose not belong to service industries?
A. Canada and Japan are the country's chief trading partners.
B. The U.S. share of would trade has increased in recent years.
C. Since the mid-1960's, the value of imports has usually been much
higher than the value of exports.
D. Traditionally, the value of U.S. exports has exceeded, or been about
the same as the value of U.S. imports.
16. Which of the following is not true of U.S. foreign trade?
A. Canada and Japan are the country's chief trading partners.
B. The U.S. share of world trade has increased in recent years.
C. Since the mid-1960s, the value of imports has usually been much
higher than the value of exports.
D. Traditionally, the value of U.S. exports has exceeded, or been about
the same as, the value of U.S. imports.
17. What are the leading U.S. exports?
A. Mineral fuels.
B. Iron and steel.
C. Paper and newsprint.
D. Machinery and transportation equipment.
18. What are the leading U.S. imports?
A. Machinery and transportation equipment.
B. Scientific measuring equipment.
C. Textile fibers.
D. All of the above.
19. What are the problems the U.S. economy has faced fro time to time?
A. Recessions. B. Depressions.
C. Inflation. D. All of the above.
20. What percentage of the population is classified by the U.S. government as
poor?
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%.
1.A 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.D 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.D 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.D 20.C
Exercises 19
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The federal judicial system consists of ______.
A. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals and 91 district courts
B. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 89 district courts, 3
courts of special jurisdiction
C. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts, 3
courts of special jurisdiction
D. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts, 2
courts for the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto
Rico
2. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in ______.
A. all kinds of cases
B. two kinds of cases
C. cases involving foreign citizens
D. cases involving a state
3. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court _____.
A. has much greater power than other justices of the Supreme Court
B. has no greater voting power than other justices of the Supreme Court
C. has greater say in deciding a case
D. has greater voting power than other justices of the Supreme Court
4. Political parties are the basis of the American political system ______.
A. but there is no provision in the Constitution for political parties
B. and the Constitution has clear provision
C. but the founding fathers had strong apprehension of political
parties
D. Both A and C
5. There have been ______ periods in the development of American political
parties in the United States.
A. four B. three
C. five D. two
6. The first period if the party system refers to the appearance of ______.
A. the Federalists
B. the Anti-Federalists
C. the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists
D. the Democratic-Republicans and the Anti-Federalists
7. The Federalists advocated ______.
A. a strong federal governments
B. strong state government
C. the adoption of Bill of Rights
D. limits on the federal government
8. The Democratic Party led by Andrew Jackson represented the interests of
______.
A. northern industrialists B. southern slave owners
C. frontiersmen D. Both B and C
9. Abraham Lincoln was elected President as candidate of _____.
A. the Democratic Party B. the Republican Party
C. the Whig Party D. None of the above
10. From the 1860s to the 1920s, the Republican Party dominated the political
scene and from the 1930s to the 1970s,______ was in power most of the
time.
A. the Democratic Party B. the Republican Party
C. no party D. None of the above
11. The two major parties today have ______ difference in policy orientation.
A. no B. little
C. some D. great
12. In terms of organization, the two major parties ______.
A. have tight organizational structure
B. have strong leadership at the national level
C. are well organized at the grass roots level
D. are merely political forces coming together in a loose way
13. In the past few decades, the influence of political parties has been
declining ______.
A. so the political parties are no longer important
B. so an independent presidential candidate can win a national election
C. but without the backing of a political party, a presidential
candidate still cannot win
D. so the presidential election has become more unpredictable
14. In 1992 ______ ran for the President as an independent candidate.
A. Bill Clinton B. Ross Perot
C. Bob Dole D. George Bush
15. When the delegates met at Philadelphia in 1787, their task was ______.
A. to write a new constitution
B. to see what they can do about the Articles of Confederation
C. to design a new form of government
D. to revise the Articles of Confederation
16. The writers of the Constitution worked out the Constitution worked out
the checks and balances in order to ______.
A. prevent the government from misusing its power
B. prevent the government from being strong
C. pacify those who opposed the Constitution
D. meet the demands of small states.
17. The President of the United States is elected ______.
A. indirectly by the electors B. by Congress
C. directly by the voters D. None of the above
18. A president can serve ______ term(s).
A. only one B. two
C. more than two D. as many as four
19. Today, there are altogether ______ departments of the U.S. government.
A. 13 B. 11
C. 17 D. 15
20. The House Speaker and the temporary President of the Senate are usually
______.
A. elected by the majority party
B. chosen from the majority and minority parties
C. members of the majority party
D. chosen freely from the Congressmen and Senators
1.C 2.B 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.A 11.C 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.C
Exercises 20
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. public and private colleges and universities and community colleges offer
______.
A. "continuing education" programs of associate degrees
B. graduate studies professional training
C. professional training
D. All of the above
2. There is ______ age limit for adult education.
A. no B. some
C. definite D. None of the above
3. The 1983 report "A Nation At Risk" cited as example of the decline of
educational standards ______.
A. high rates of adult illiteracy
B. declining SAT scores
C. low scores of American students in key subjects as compared with
scores of students of other countries
D. All of the above
4. The report listed as new basics ______.
A. English, mathematics, computer, social studies
B. science, mathematics, social studies, foreign language
C. English, science, social studies, mathematics, computer
D. English, science, computer, social studies
5. The two focuses of the education reforms in the mid-1980s were: ______.
A. the raising of the standards of teaching and the reform in
curriculum
B. the raising of the standards of teaching and learning and the
restructuring of the schools
C. the raising of the standards of teaching and the improvement of the
standards of learning
D. None of the above
6. One of the six goals set by President Bush in his " America 2000" Plan is
______.
A. elimination of drugs and violence from school
B. the increase of high-school graduation rate to 86%
C. competence in forging language, mathematics, science, history and
geography
D. the increase of adult literacy rate
7. Since 1991, the goals set in the plan ______.
A. have been largely achieved
B. have largely not been achieved
C. have been achieved in some significant areas
D. have not been achieved at all
8. To many Americans, education is important because ______.
A. it contributes to the success of individuals
B. it contributes to the strengthening of national strength
C. it prepares the young people for future development
D. Both A and B
9. Elementary and secondary education is ______.
A. free
B. compulsory
C. free and attendance is required by law
D. Both B and C
10. American schools are divided into ______.
A. public schools and private ones
B. Public schools, private schools and community schools
C. coeducation schools and single sex schools.
D. national schools and state-run schools
11. In the United States, educational policies are determined by ______.
A. the federal government B. female only institutions
C. single sex institutions D. coeducation institutions
12. In the United States, educational policies are determined by ______.
A. the federal government
B. the state and board of trustees in some states
C. local school district
D. board of trustees
13. The governing board of school district is responsible for ______.
A. the hiring of teachers and staff
B. the designing of a suitable curriculum
C. the compiling and approving of budget
D. All of the above
14. High schools are made up of ______ different types of schools with
somewhat different tasks.
A. four B. three
C. five D. None of the above
15. Higher education in the United States consists of ______ types of
institutions.
A. four B. five
C. six D. seven
16. The universities that offer doctoral degrees are ______.
A. research universities
B. doctoral universities
C. A and B and some specialized institutions
D. Both A and B
17. Board of trustees is composed chiefly of laymen because ______.
A. they are more likely to represent public interests
B. they have more commonsense and less professional bias
C. their interests are affected by board decisions
D. None of the above
18. There is ______ difference between tuition rates in public and private
institutions of higher learning.
A. no B. significant
C. some D. None of the above
19. In face of the rising cost for higher education, fields of graduate study
that are favored by students are those that ______.
A. offer greater professional satisfaction
B. make graduates more easily employed
C. offer easy enrollment
D. offer more rewarding jobs in terms of payment
20. Community college ______.
A. offers bachelor degrees B. offers associate degrees.
C. is a two-year college D. Both B and C
1.D 2.A 3.D 4.C 5.AB 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.A 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.B 15.C 16.C 17.A 18.B 19.D 20.D
Exercises 21
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. Poor Richard's Almanac contained ________ .
A. many proverbs B. Franklin's autobiography
C. voyages to the new land D. climates and crops
2. In the early 19th century, New York City was ________.
A. the capital of the United States
B. the center of Harlem Renaissance
C. the center of knickerbockers
D. None of the above
3. Washington Irving's most famous book The Sketch book contains _______ .
A. The Legend of Sleepy Hollow B. Rip Van Winkle
C. A History of New York D. Both A and B
4. Washington Irving fills the stories with the "local color" of ______ .
A. New York City
B. Hudson River valley near New York
C. New York state
D. New England
5. When Rip Van Winkle woke up and went back to his village, he found he had
slept in the hill for _______ .
A. 10 years B. 20 years
C. 50 years D. None of the above
6. Emerson _______ Transcendentalist.
A. called himself B. did not like the term
C. never called himself D. created the term
7. In the book "Nature", Emerson stated that ________ .
A. man's relationship with nature transcends the idea of usefulness
B. nature is useful to man
C. nature is independent of man and has nothing to do with man
D. nature can only be used by man
8. Nathaniel Hawthorne was one of those who ______ transcendentalism.
A. supported B. was indifferent to
C. attacked D. had nothing to do with
9. The book The Scarlet Letter ends with Dimmesdale _______ .
A. running away with Hester
B. killing himself out of guilt
C. overcoming his sense of guilt
D. making a public confession and falling dead in the arms of Hester
10. The locality in Mark Twain's works was usually somewhere along _______.
A. the Hudson River B. the Mississippi River
C. the Missouri River D. the transcontinental railway
11. In Leaves of Grass Walt Whitman sang praise of _______ .
A. equality
B. equality, democracy and the common people
C. democracy
D. democracy and the common people
12. Most of the poems written by Emily Dickinson were _______ .
A. lost B. published during her lifetime
C. buried with her D. published after her death
13. The two great themes of Dickinson's poetry were _______.
A. death and search for faith B. the grave and the soul
C. the grave and faith D. death and the soul
14. The novel Sister Carrie describes ________ .
A. the death of Hurstwood
B. the degeneration of Carrie Meeber
C. how Carrie climbed up the social ladder
D. Carrie's love affair with Drouet
15. T. S. Eliot's The Waste Land is important because it ______ .
A. deals with the cultural glories of the past
B. praises the lost generation
C. is highly traditional
D. reveals the spiritual crisis of post-WWI Europe and it is original
in form
16. The "Lost Generation" refers to those who _______ .
A. have no ambition in life
B. are physically and spiritually impotent
C. are homeless
D. are expatriates
17. In the Old Man and the Sea, Hemingway praises the old fisherman's ______.
A. courage to face the risks of the high seas
B. courage to fight the sharks
C. courage to accept defeat of not catching anything for 84 days
D. attitude towards defeat and failure
18. Langston Hughes was noted for his _______ .
A. true description of urban Blacks in poetry
B. unconventional portrayal of Harlem
C. singing of black America
D. None of the above
19. In the Native Son, Richard Wright makes readers see that _____ .
A. the Blacks are alienated
B. the social situation of Bigger Thomas' tragedy
C. the Blacks are bitter
D. the life of the Blacks is miserable
20. Popular music is different from classical music and folk music in that
_______ .
A. it is very noisy
B. it is anonymous
C. it is written as a commercial product for mass distribution
D. it is an individual artistic creation
1.A 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.D 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.A 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.B 20 C
Exercises 22
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. Canada is located in ________.
A. the Southern Hemisphere B. The Northern Hemisphere
C. the Western Hemisphere D. The Eastern Hemisphere
2. Canada is bounded on the east by ________.
A. the Pacific Ocean B. the Atlantic Ocean
C. the Indian Ocean D. the Arctic Ocean
3. Nearly ________of the land in Canada has no permanent population.
A. half B. two-thirds
C. 89% D. 95%
4. Canada's largest city is _________.
A. Montreal B. Toronto
C. Ottawa D. Vancouver
5. The longest river in Canada is _________.
A. the Mackenzie B. the St. Lawrence
C. the Severn D. the Yukon
6. The St. Lawrence and ________together form an important transportation
network for eastern Canada.
A. the Mackenzie B. the Great Lakes
C. the Yukon D. the Hudson Bay
7. The Interior Plains lie between________ and _______ .
A. the Canadian Shield/the Appalachian Region
B. the Canadian Shield/the Rocky Mountains
C. the Great Lakes/the Arctic Islands
D. the Appalachian Region/the Great Lakes
8. The name "Canada" is thought to be derived from kanata, an Indian word
meaning _______.
A. a guitar B. a meeting place
C. a settlement D. a piece of land
9. Who was the first European to discover Canada?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
10. Who founded the first permanent settlements at Quebec and Montreal on
the St. Lawrence River?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
11. Why were the French troops in Canada defeated by the British during the
Seven Years' War?
A. Because they were not used to the weather in Canada.
B. Because they did not get support from the local people.
C. Because they did not receive the supplies they needed so badly.
D. Because the British had larger and better settlements in Canada.
12. Under______ , the French Canadian farming economy of the St. Lawrence
valley and its language, religion, and customs continued unchanged.
A. the Quebec Act of 1774
B. the Treaty of Paris in 1763
C. the Constitutional Act of 1791
D. the Act of Union in 1840
13. When was Canada divided into Upper Canada (English-speaking)and Lower
Canada (French-speaking)?
A. In 1763 B. In 1774
C. In 1791 D. In 1840
14. When was Canada given internal self-government?
A. In 1791 B. In 1840
C. In 1848 D. In 1867
15. Under ________ , the provinces of Canada, New Brunswick, and Nova Scotia
were united to form the Do-minion of Canada.
A. the Act of Union in 1840
B. the British North America Act of 1867
C. the Quebec Act of 1774
D. the Constitutional Act of 1791
16. Who was the first prime minister of the new Canada?
A. Sir John Macdonald. B. Sir Wilfrid Laurier.
C. Robert Borden. D. Mackenzie King.
17. In 1896 _______ took over and the country was ruled under Sir Wilfrid
Laurier.
A. the Conservative Party B. the Liberal Party
C. the Labor Party D. the New Democratic Party
18. In 1905 two more provinces were created. They were_______ .
A. Ontario and Quebec
B. Manitoba and British Columbia
C. Alberta and Saskatchewan
D. Newfoundland and Prince Edward Island
19. In 1931 by_______ Canada was formally declared to be a sovereign nation
and became a member of the Common-wealth of Nations.
A. the Peace Treaty of 1919 B. the Statute of Westminster
C. the Meek Lake Accord D. the constitution Act of 1982
20. In 1949 _______ became Canada's tenth province.
A. Newfoundland B. Prince Edward Island
C. Labrador D. British Columbia
1.C 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.A
下面到了爱、加、澳、新等小国的了
Exercises 11
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. Ireland is called the Emerald Isle because of ______.
A. its shape
B. its connection with Britain
C. its abundant natural resources
D. its rich green countryside
2. Ireland is divided into two political parts: ______.
A. Northern Ireland and Southern Ireland
B. Southern Ireland and the Republic of Ireland
C. The Republic of Ireland and Northern Ireland
D. Northern Ireland and Britain
3. The largest river in Ireland is ______.
A. the Liffey River B. the Dodder River
C. the Shannon River D. the Lough Derg
4. The most significant feature of Irish landscape is ______, which provide
peat used for fuel.
A. bogs B. streams
C. islands D. cliffs
5. Which of the following is not true of Ireland's climate?
A. It is dry. B. It is moist.
C. It is mild. D. It is changeable.
6. Ireland has the following demographic features except ______.
A. it has a low birthrate
B. it has a late marriage age
C. it has an excess of females in the population
D. it has a high proportion of bachelors and spinsters of all ages
7. Ireland is unique among European countries for ______.
A. its small population
B. its beautiful scenery
C. its rich natural resources
D. its century-long population decline
8. The population decreased from the 1840s until about 1970, largely because
of ______.
A. a low birth rate B. a high death rate
C. a low employment rate D. a high emigration rate
9. The population of Ireland is predominantly of ______ origin.
A. English B. Celtic
C. Norman D. French
10. In Ireland today about ______ of the population are Roman Catholics.
A. 75% B. 80%
C. 90% D. 93%
11. When did the Anglo-Saxons invade Ireland?
A. In 432. B. In 1170.
C. In 1610. D. In 1641.
12. Who was the first English king to bring all Ireland under English
control?
A. Henry II. B. Henry III.
C. Henry VIII. D. James II.
13. Irish nationalism climaxed in ______.in which an Irish Republic was
proclaimed.
A. the massacre of Drogheda
B. the Easter Uprising of 1916
C. the battle of the Borne (1690)
D. the Chartist Movement
14. The creation of Northern Ireland dates from ______.when the Irish Free
State was set up.
A. 1916 B. 1921
C. 1937 D. 1949
15. On Easter Monday, April 18, 1949, Eire became the Republic of Ireland,
formally free of allegiance to the British crown and no longer a member
of ______.
A. the Commonwealth of Nations B. the United Nations
C. the NATO D. the EC
16. Since independence the Irish Republic has adhered to ______.
A. a policy of protectionism
B. a policy of containment
C. a policy of military alliance
D. a policy of neutrality and nonalignment
17. When did the Republic of Ireland join the EC?
A. In 1952. B. In 1955.
C. In 1973. D. In 1975.
18. When Albert Reynolds became Prime Minister in 1992, both Ireland and
Britain agreed to hold regular meetings .
A. to deal with the IRA
B. to make preparations for a united Ireland
C. to seek an end to the violence in Northern Ireland
D. to improve relations with each other
19. As a result of peace talks between Ireland and Britain a peace agreement
on Northern Ireland was signed in ______.
A. April 1997 B. May 1997
C. April 1998 D. May 1998
20. The peace agreement on Northern Ireland was approved by voters across
all of Ireland in a referendum held in ______.
A. April 1997 B. May 1997
C. April 1998 D. May 1998
1.D 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.B 10.D 11.B 12.C 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.D 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.D
Exercises 12
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. The 1937 Constitution abolished the Irish Free State and established Eire
as ______.
A. a constitutional monarchy B. a parliamentary republic
C. a federal republic D. a socialist country
2. In Ireland a prime minister is appointed by after nomination by ______.
A. the Queen/the president
B. the president/the Queen
C. the Queen/the House of Representatives
D. the president/the House of Representatives
3. Who is the head of state in Ireland today?
A. The Queen. B. The prime minister.
C. The president. D. The Dai.
4. In Ireland the House of Representatives is directly elected and now has
______ members.
A. 60 B. 120
C. 166 D. 186
5. In Ireland ______ is the court of final appeal and plays a key role in
the interpretation of the Constitution.
A. the Supreme Court B. the High Court
C. the Highest Court D. the Central Court
6. Ireland has a bipolar political party system with two major parties:____.
A. Sinn Fein and Fianna Fail B. Fianna Fail and Fine Gael
C. Sinn Fein and Fine Gael D. IRA and Sinn Fein
7. ______ is the oldest of all the parties is Ireland.
A. The Irish Labour Party B. The Progressive Democrats
C. Fianna Fail D. Fine Gael
8. ______ is the largest of the minor parties in Ireland after the 1987
election.
A. The Irish Labour Party B. The Progressive Democrats
C. The Workers' Party D. The Democratic Socialists
9. The economy of Ireland has been traditionally agricultural, but since
______ the country's industrial base has expanded.
A. the mid-1950s B. the mid-1960s
C. the 1970s D. the 1980s
10. In Ireland the agricultural enterprise producing the most income is____.
A. forestry B. vegetable growing
C. sugar refining D. animal husbandry
11. Sine the 1960s, ______ has become the mainstay of the Irish economy.
A. manufacturing B. mining
C. energy D. animal husbandry
12. Industrial output has grown by an average of ______ annually since
tariff barriers were eliminated in 1977.
A. 3% B. 5%
C. 8% D. 10%
13. Ireland is one of the leading exporters of ______ in Europe.
A. coal and iron ore B. silver and gold
C. copper and aluminum D. lead and zinc
14. The oldest university in Ireland is ______.
A. the National University B. Dublin City University
C. the University of Dublin D. Saint Patrick's College
15. The following are the major newspapers in Ireland except ______.
A. the Irish Independent B. the Irish Times
C. the Irish Press D. the Sum
16. Which of the following is the most influential of all Irish newspapers?
A. The Irish Independent. B. The Irish Times.
C. The Irish Press. D. The Sun.
17. Ireland gave the world some of the greatest writers in the English
language, including Jonathan Swift, Oliver Goldsmith, and ______.
A. William Shakespeare B. Charles Dickens
C. Oscar Wilde D. Bernard Shaw
18. Among the following writers, who is the most well-know Irish writer of
the modern period?
A. George Bernard Shaw. B. Virginia Woolf.
C. James Joyce. D. Stephen Leacock.
19. The author of Ulysses is ______.
A. George Bernard Shaw B. Virginia Woolf
C. James Joyce D. Stephen Leacock
20. In ______ the writer introduced the stream-of-consciousness technique as
a remarkable means of character portrayal.
A. Ulysses
B. Exiles
C. Dubliners
D. A Portrait of the Artist As A Young Man
1.B 2.D 3.C 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.D 11.A 12.B 13.D 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.C 19.C 20.D
加拿大
Exercises 23
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. Canada is located in ________.
A. the Southern Hemisphere B. The Northern Hemisphere
C. the Western Hemisphere D. The Eastern Hemisphere
2. Canada is bounded on the east by ________.
A. the Pacific Ocean B. the Atlantic Ocean
C. the Indian Ocean D. the Arctic Ocean
3. Nearly ________of the land in Canada has no permanent population.
A. half B. two-thirds
C. 89% D. 95%
4. Canada's largest city is _________.
A. Montreal B. Toronto
C. Ottawa D. Vancouver
5. The longest river in Canada is _________.
A. the Mackenzie B. the St. Lawrence
C. the Severn D. the Yukon
6. The St. Lawrence and ________together form an important transportation
network for eastern Canada.
A. cards decorated with hearts
B. Cupid armed with bow and arrow
C. flowers tied with red ribbons
D. roast turkey
7. The Interior Plains lie between________ and _______ .
A. the Canadian Shield/the Appalachian Region
B. the Canadian Shield/the Rocky Mountains
C. the Great Lakes/the Arctic Islands
D. the Appalachian Region/the Great Lakes
8. The name "Canada" is thought to be derived from kanata, an Indian word
meaning _______.
A. a guitar B. a meeting place
C. a settlement D. a piece of land
9. Who was the first European to discover Canada?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
10. Who founded the first permanent settlements at Quebec and Montreal on the
St. Lawrence River?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
11. Why were the French troops in Canada defeated by the British during the
Seven Years' War?
A. Because they were not used to the weather in Canada.
B. Because they did not get support from the local people.
C. Because they did not receive the supplies they needed so badly.
D. Because the British had larger and better settlements in Canada.
12. Under______ , the French Canadian farming economy of the St. Lawrence
valley and its language, religion, and customs continued unchanged.
A. the Quebec Act of 1774
B. the Treaty of Paris in 1763
C. the Constitutional Act of 1791
D. the Act of Union in 1840
13. When was Canada divided into Upper Canada (English-speaking)and Lower
Canada (French-speaking)?
A. In 1763 B. In 1774
C. In 1791 D. In 1840
14. When was Canada given internal self-government?
A. In 1791 B. In 1840
C. In 1848 D. In 1867
15. Under ________ , the provinces of Canada, New Brunswick, and Nova Scotia
were united to form the Do-minion of Canada.
A. the Act of Union in 1840
B. the British North America Act of 1867
C. the Quebec Act of 1774
D. the Constitutional Act of 1791
16. Who was the first prime minister of the new Canada?
A. Sir John Macdonald. B. Sir Wilfrid Laurier.
C. Robert Borden. D. Mackenzie King.
17. In 1896 _______ took over and the country was ruled under Sir Wilfrid
Laurier.
A. the Conservative Party B. the Liberal Party
C. the Labor Party D. the New Democratic Party
18. In 1905 two more provinces were created. They were_______ .
A. Ontario and Quebec
B. Manitoba and British Columbia
C. Alberta and Saskatchewan
D. Newfoundland and Prince Edward Island
19. In 1931 by_______ Canada was formally declared to be a sovereign nation
and became a member of the Common-wealth of Nations.
A. the Peace Treaty of 1919 B. the Statute of Westminster
C. the Meek Lake Accord D. the constitution Act of 1982
20. In 1949 _______ became Canada's tenth province.
A. Newfoundland B. Prince Edward Island
C. Labrador D. British Columbia
1.C 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.A
澳大利亚
Exercises 27
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. Like the island continent of Antarctica, Australia is located entirely in
______.
A. the Northern Hemisphere B. the Southern Hemisphere
C. the North Pole D. the South Pole
2. With regard to its size, Australia is ______ country in the world.
A. the third largest B. the fourth largest
C. the fifth largest D. the sixth largest
3. The geographical structure of Australia is generally divided into three
topographical regions: ______.
A. the Eastern Plateau, the Central highlands and the Western Lowlands
B. the Central Plateau, the Western Highlands and the Eastern Lowlands
C. the Western Plateau, the Eastern highlands and the Central Eastern
Lowlands
D. the Central Plateau, the Western highlands and the Eastern Lowlands
4. Although Australia has a large area, ______ of the continent is desert or
semi-desert.
A. one third B. two thirds
C. half D. more than half
5. Most Australians live on the cool, wet, forested ______.
A. southeast coastland B. southwest coastland
C. northeast coastland D. northwest coastland
6. The only places in Australia that experience regular winter snowfall and
icy conditions are ______.
A. the eastern coastal areas of Queensland
B. the Blue Mountains
C. the New England Tableland
D. the highest peaks of the Snowy Mountains and Victorian Highlands
7. Australia's most common plans are ______.
A. oaks and elms B. palms and pines
C. willows and poplars D. eucalypts and wattles
8. What animals are regarded as Australia's national fauna?
A. Koalas and possums. B. Emus and kangaroos.
C. Echidnas and platypuses. D. Budgerigars and cockatoos.
9. Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people constitute ______of
Australia's population.
A. 1% B. 1.5%
C. 2% D. 2.5%
10. Why has Australia always been a continent with few people?
A. Because Australia is too far away from Europe.
B. Because Australia is the least mountainous and most level of the
world's continents.
C. Because Australia is separated from the rest of the world by seas.
D. Because most of the continent is hot and dry.
11. Australia is politically divided into _____ states and _____ territories.
A. four/three B. five/two
C. six/three D. six/two
12. Australia is a nation of immigrants because the overwhelming majority of
the Australian population are ______.
A. white
B. middle class people
C. tourists from other countries
D. immigrants or their descendants
13. Why is Australia's New South Wales called the premier state?
A. Because it was the first colony established by Britain in 1788.
B. Because it is the biggest state in Australia.
C. Because it is the most important state in Australia.
D. Because it has the largest population in Australia.
14. The only city on the western coast which has a population of more than
one million is ______.
A. Darwin B. Perth
C. the Gold Coast D. Brisbane
15. The Great Barrier Reef is included on the World Heritage list because___.
A. it has the most beautiful seascape in the world
B. it has the greatest number of islands in the world
C. it has the most diverse and complex marine life in the world
D. it has the longest coast in the world
16. Adelaide, the capital of South Australia, is internationally known for
its ______.
A. wine B. beautiful scenery
C. valuable minerals D. arts festival
17. Western Australia is the biggest Australian state, but its population is
only ______ of the country's population.
A. 9% B. 10%
C. 11% D. 12%
18. Tasmania is an island which lies ______ of the Australian mainland.
A. north of the northeastern corner
B. south of the southeastern corner
C. east of the northeastern comer
D. west of the southeastern corner
19. Why is the southern area of the Northern Territory called the Red Centre
of Australia?
A. Because Uluru is located there.
B. Because it is extremely hot and dry.
C. Because it consists of miles and miles of red-sand desert and
mountain ranges.
D. Because it lies in the tropics.
20. Canberra, the capital of Australia, got its name from the word
"Canburry",which is an Aboriginal word meaning ______.
A. "meeting place" B. "beautiful garden"
C. "sacred site" D. "capital city"
1.B 2.D 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.D 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.D 11.D 12.D 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.A
新西兰
Exercises 33
I. Read the following unfinished statements or questions carefully. For each
unfinished statement or question four suggested answers marked A, B, C and
D are given. Choose the one you think best completes the statements or
answers the question.
1. New Zealand is situated about 1, 500 km _______.
A. north-west of Australia B. south-east of Australia
C. north-east of Australia D. south-west of Australia
2. Because the country is very narrow, no place in New Zealand is more than
______ from the sea.
A. 100 km B. 110 km
C. 120 km D. 150 km
3. New Zealand is the first country in the world to get the new day because
_______ .
A. it is just east of the International Date Line
B. it is just west of the International Date Line
C. it is located halfway between the equator and the South Pole
D. it is located in the Southern Pacific Ocean
4. A fault line runs the length of New Zealand, which means that _______.
A. it often has storms B. it often has volcanoes
C. it often has earthquakes D. it often has droughts
5. The Southern Alps, with Mt Cook in the center, runs almost the whole
length of ______ .
A. New Zealand B. North Island
C. South Island D. Stewart Island
6. The longest river in New Zealand is ________ .
A. the Clutha River B. the Wanganui
C. the Rangitata D. the Waikato
7. The following are the volcanic mountains in North Island except ________ .
A. Ruapehu B. Mt Cook
C. Ngaurohoe D. Tongariro
8. The most serious potential natural disasters in New Zealand are _______ .
A. storms and earthquakes B. volcanoes and floods
C. earthquakes and volcanoes D. floods and storms
9. Except in the west of the Southern Alps, the climate in New Zealand is
generally _______ .
A. cold
B. hot
C. neither very hot nor very cold
D. dry
10. _______ is the flightless bird which has become a symbol of New Zealand.
A. Emu B. Kiwi
C. Weka D. Pukeko
11. The first European to visit New Zealand was _______ .
A. Kupe B. Abel Tasman
C. William Hobson D.James Cook
12. Why was the British government interested in New Zealand?
A. Trade with New Zealand was economically important.
B. There were no laws to protect Maori rights in dealings with white
settlers.
C. The French government was taking an interest in New Zealand, too.
D. All of the above.
13. Modern New Zealand was founded on the basis of _____ signed between
Maoris and British settlers in 1840.
A. Maoritanga B. Aotearoa
C. the Treaty of Waitangi D. the Treaty of ANZUS
14. ________ is the Maori name for New Zealand, meaning land of the long,
white cloud'.
A. Waitangi B. Kiwi
C. Aotearoa D. Maoritanga
15. The Maori believe that their ancestors, and all living things in the
world, were descended from _______ .
A. the sky B. the land
C. the God D. the gods
16. According to Maori oral history, New Zealand was discovered by _______.
A. Abel Tasman B. James Cook
C. Kupe D. Maui
17. In 1893 New Zealand became the first country in the world _______ .
A. to recognize Maori rights of self-determination
B. go give women the vote
C. to introduce procedures for handling industrial disputes
D. to adopt the 40-hour working week
18. In 1891-1911 (under the Liberal-Labor Party) and 1935-1947 (under Labor)
New Zealand won a world reputation of _______.
A. its social experimentation
B. its high standard of living
C. its economic achievements
D. its independent foreign policy
19. Which of the following is not true about the Maori protest movement?
A. It is popular with younger urban Maoris.
B. It aims to gain recognition for their language, values and culture
in national life.
C. It demands compensation for their language, values and culture in
national life.
D. The New Zealand government has never paid any attention to the
movement.
20. Maoris have adopted many aspects of ______ and more and more New
Zealanders now share in the rich heritage of _______.
A. American culture/Asian culture
B. Western culture/Asian culture
C. American culture/Maori culture
D. Western culture/Maori culture
1. B 2. B 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.D 20.D
英概一句话简答完整版（余志远版本）
英国：
1. What is the full name of the United Kingdom?
It is the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland.
2. What are the two large island that make up the British Isles?
They are Great Britain and Ireland.
3. What are the four political divisions of the United Kingdom?
They are England, Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland.
4. Why does the United Kingdom have a mild climate, even though it lies farther north than our Heilongjiang Province?
Because Britain’s climate is influenced by the Gulf Stream.
5. How many metropolitan areas does England have?
England has seven metropolitan areas.
6. What is the backbone of England?
It is the Pennines.
7. What is the largest lake in the British Isles?
It is Lough Neagh.
8. From what languages is English derived?
England is mainly derived from the Anglo-Saxon and Norman-French languages.
9. What is an eisteddfod?
An eisteddfod is a Welsh festival of poetry, music and other arts.
10. What have the Scottish people been famous for?
The Scottish people have been famous for their close-knit clans, colorful plaid kilts, and skill as fierce warriors.
11. How long was Britain under the Roman occupation?
Britain was under the Roman occupation for nearly 400 years.
12. Why was the Roman impact upon the Britons surprisingly limited?
The Roman impact on the Britons was surprisingly limited because the Romans always treated the Britons as a subject people of slave class and they never intermarried with the native Britons.
13. When did the Anglo-Saxons begin to settle in Britain?
The Anglo-Saxons began to settle in Britain in the 5th century.
14. When did England begin to be Christianized?
England began to be Christianized in 579.
15. What was the result of the Synod of Whitby in Yorkshire in 664?
The result of the Synod of Whitby was that the Roman missionaries gained the upper hand over the Celtic missionaries.
16. What was Harold doing when he was informed of the invasion of Northumbria by Tostig and Harold Hardrada?
He was in the south preparing to resist the expected attack from Normandy.
17. Where did Harold defeat Tostig and Hardrada?
Harold defeated Tostig and Harold Hardrada at Stanford Bridge.
18. By whom was William crowned King of England in Westminster Abbey?
William was crowned King of England in Westminster Abbey by the Archbishop of York.
19. What did William do after he suppressed the Saxon risings in the north?
He built a string of defense castles to ensure his military control of the whole country.
20. Was the Norman Conquest the last successful invasion of England?
Yes. The Norman Conquest was the last successful invasion of England because England has never been invaded since.
21. Why did William I give his barons large estates in England?
William I gave large estates to his barons because he wanted to get a promise of military service and a proportion of the land’s produce.
22. What was the peculiar feature of the feudal system of England?
All landowners, big and small, took the oath of allegiance for the land they held, not only to their immediate lord, but also to the king.
23. Why did William I have the Domesday Book compiled?
William I had the Domesday Book compiled because he wanted to have a reliable record of all his land, his tenants and their possessions and to discover how much his tenants could be asked to pay by way of taxes.
24. What was William I ’s policy towards the church?
He wanted to keep it completely under his control, but at the same time to uphold its power.
25. Why did Henry II make Thomas Becket Archbishop of Canterbury?
He thought that Thomas Becket would assist him in carrying out legal reforms.
26. What brought Henry II into collision with Thomas Becket, the Archbishop of Canterbury?
The exceptional privileges enjoyed by the clergy brought Henry II into collision with Thomas Becket.
27. What are the two aspects of the Norman legacy that contributed to great domestic unrest in England in the 12th and 13th centuries?
One was England’s possession of territory in France. The other was Norman adherence to Roman Catholicism.
28. Who was the French national heroine during the Hundred Year’s War who helped the French to drive the English out of France?
Joan of Arc.
29. When did the government establish rules for the first time to keep down wages?
The government established rules for the first time to keep down wages in 1351.
30. How many peasant in Kent and Essex were killed by Richard II ’s troops?
40,000 peasants in Kent and Essex were killed by Richard II’s troops.
31. What were the emblems of the Houses of York and Lancaster?
The emblem of the House of York was a white rose and the emblem of the House of Lancaster was a red rose.
32. What was the impact of the Wars of the Roses on feudalism in England?
The Wars of the Roses dealt a death blow to feudalism in England.
33. How did Elizabeth I try to avoid troubling Parliament too often for pounds?
She tried to avoid troubling Parliament by making strict economies at Court.
34. What questions did Elizabeth I treat as personal and private?
These questions were her religion, her marriage, her foreign policy, the succession to the throne, and her finance.
35. How did Elizabeth I manage to maintain in friendly relationship with France?
She managed to maintain a friendly relationship with France through her marriage alliances which were never materialized.
36. When was Mary Queen of Scots executed?
Mary Queen of Scots was executed in 1587.
37. What did the destruction of the Spanish Armada show?
It showed England’s superiority as a naval power.
38. What was the long-term result of the Gunpowder Plot?
The long-term result of the Gunpowder Plot has been an annual celebration of November 5, when a bonfire is lit to burn a guy and a firework display is arranged.
39. What was Puritanism noted for?
It was noted for simple dress, high moral standards and very egalitarian attitudes.
40. What is a constitutional monarchy?
A constitutional monarchy is one whose power is limited by Parliament.
41. What did the Whigs stand for in the early 19th century?
They stood for a reduction in Crown patronage, sympathy towards Nonconformists, and care for the interests of merchants and bankers.
42. Why did changes in farming methods affect lives of millions in the 18th century?
Changes in farming methods affected lives of millions in the 18th century England because village and agriculture were the backbone of England at that time.
43. What did the land owners want to do in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?
They wanted to replace the small farms cultivated on the “open-field” system by larger, economically more efficient farms with hedge-divided fields.
44. Why was King George III nicknamed “Farmer George”?
King George III was nicknamed “Farmer George” because he was very enthusiastic about agricultural changes at Winsor.
45. What were the two events which most alarmed the British ruling classes in the closing decades of the 18th century?
They were the American War of Independence and the French Revolution.
46. When did the British begin to transport convicts to Australia?
The British began to transport convicts to Australia in 1788.
47. What was the result of the general strike of 1926?
The strike failed. The miners were forced to return to work with longer hours and lower wages even than before. Yet, outside the mining district, the strike seemed to have improved relations between the workers and the middle classes.
48. Why did Edward VIII abdicate in 1936 after a reign of 10 months?
Edward VIII abdicated because he wanted to marry Wallis Simpson, a twice-divorced American.
49. When did Britain finally become a full member of the European Economic Community?
Britain finally became a full member of the European Economic Community in January,1973.
50. Why was Mrs. Thatcher removed from office in 1990?
It was because of her opposition to European Union and her imposition of an extremely unpopular flat-rate “poll tax” in place of property taxes to pay or local government service.
51. What are the economic problems Britain is now faced with?
Britain is now faced with a low rate of industrial growth, unemployment, and a rising inflation rate.
52. What percentage of British workers are employed in service industries?
More than 70% of British workers are employed in service industries.
53. Why were early factories located near the coal fields?
Because coal powered the steam engines that moved the machinery.
54. In which British industry did the Industrial Revolution begin?
The Industrial Revolution began in Britain’s textile industry.
55. Where are oil and natural gas found in Britain?
Oil and natural gas are found under the North Sea.
56. Why is it that Britain imports more clothing than it exports?
Because many countries with lower labor costs can produce clothing more cheaply than the British can.
57. Which area in Britain is called the “Silicon Glen”?
The area between Glasgow and Edinburgh in Scotland is called the “Silicon Glen”.
58. What is the county of Kent in southeastern England famous for?
It is famous for its beautiful blossoms of its apple and cherry orchards in springtime.
59. What are Britain’s most important imports?
British imports include chemicals, clothing, foods, machinery, metals, motor vehicles, paper and newsprint, petroleum products, and textiles.
60. What are Britain’s most important exports?
British exports are aerospace equipment, chemicals and pharmaceuticals, foods and beverages, machinery, motor vehicles, petroleum, and scientific and medical equipment.
61. Where does the Sovereign’s coronation take place?
The Sovereign’s coronation takes place at Westminster Abbey in London.
62. When is the Sovereign’s birthday officially celebrated?
It is officially celebrated in June every year.
63. What does the Duke of Edinburgh do when the Queen pays state visits to foreign governments?
He accompanies her.
64. Where does the Queen’s expenditure arising from public duties come from?
The Queen’s expenditure arising from public duties comes from the Civil List and government departments.
65. What does the term “parliament” originally mean?
The term “parliament” originally means a meeting for a parley or discussion.
66. What is the main function of the House of Lords?
The main function of the House of Lords is to bring the wide experience of its members into the process of law-making.
67. What is the Speaker’s task in the House of Commons?
His task is to preside over the House and enforce the rules of order.
68. How many counties are there in England and Wales?
There are 53 counties in England and Wales.
69. What are the three island areas where single-tier authorities were introduced in Scotland?
They are the Orkneys, the Shetlands and the Western Isles.
70. How do local authorities in Great Britain raise revenue?
They raise revenue through the council tax.
71. What are the two main branches of the law in Britain?
They are criminal law and civil law.
72. How many types of criminal courts are there in Scotland?
There are three types of criminal courts in Scotland. They are the High Court of Justiciary, the sheriff court, and the district court.
73. What is the difference between solemn procedure and summary procedure?
In solemn procedure, a defendant is tried by a judge sitting with a jury. In summary procedure the judge sits without a jury.
74. What are the three divisions of the High Court?
They are the Family Division, the Chancery Division, and the Queen’s Bench Division.
75. What is the ultimate court of appeal in civil cases throughout the United Kingdom?
It is the House of Lords.
76. Who directly controls London’s Metropolitan Police Force?
The Home Secretary controls London’s Metropolitan Police Force.
77. What are the chief aims of the penal system?
The chief aims are to deter the potential law-breaker, and to reform the convicted offender.
78. How many prisons are there in Northern Ireland?
There are 4 prisons in Northern Ireland.
79. How long can a court probation order last?
A court probation order can last between 6 months and 3 years.
80. What courses (or schemes) and services are provided in all prisons?
Training courses, educational schemes, medical services and welfare services are provided in all prisons.
81. Are British people obliged to use the National Health Service?
No. They are not obliged to use the service.
82. What are services for elderly people aimed at?
Services for elderly people are aimed at helping them live at home whenever possible.
83. What is the aim of the social security system?
The aim of the social security is to secure a basic standard of living for people in financial need.
84. At what age do men and women generally retire?
Men generally retire at the age of 65, and women at the ate of 60.
85. What are the two established churches in Britain?
They are the Church of England in England and the Church of Scotland in Scotland.
86. How many provinces does the Church of England have?
The Church of England has two provinces: Canterbury and York.
87. When were the first women priests ordained in Britain?
They were ordained in March 1994.
88. Who founded the Salvation Army in the East of London in 1865?
William Booth, a great follower of John Wesley, founded the Salvation Army.
89. Where do the people in London go to see the Christmas decorations?
They go to Oxford Street, Regent Street and Piccadilly to see the Christmas decorations.
90. Why is December 26th called “Boxing Day”?
December 26th is called Boxing Day because it was formerly the custom to give “Christmas boxes”, or gifts of money, to servants and tradesmen on this day.
91. How many kinds of state secondary schools are there in Great Britain?
Three. They are grammar school, secondary modern school and comprehensive school.
92. When was the Open University founded?
When did it begin its first courses?
It was founded in 1969, and it began its first courses in 1970.
93. Why is the Open University so named?
It is so named because it is “open” to all to become students.
94. How much money is spent on press advertising every year in Great Britain?
About ￡5,100 million.
95. How much time do British people spend a day watching television?
People spend an average of over three and a half hours a day watching television.
96. How are the state-run television channels BBC1 and BBC2 financed?
They are financed from the sale of television licences.
97. How are independent channels ITV and C4 funded?
They are funded entirely by advertising.
98. When did the BBC begin to provide regular television broadcasts?
The BBC began to provide regular television broadcasts in 1936.
99. Which sport is regarded as typically English?
Cricket is the most typically English sport.
100. What is a “copyright” library?
It is a library which is entitled to receive a free copy of every book published in the United Kingdom.
美国
1. How does the United States rank among the countries of the world in population and area?
The United States of America is the third-largest country in the world in population and the fourth-largest country in area.
2. What are the two major mountain ranges in the United States?
They are the Appalachian Highlands and the Rocky Mountains.
3. What is the Continental Divide, or Great Divide?
The Continental Divide, or Great Divide, is an imaginary line that separates streams that flow into the Pacific Ocean from those that flow into the Atlantic.
4. What are the five Great Lakes of the United States?
They are Erie, Huron, Michigan, Ontario, and Superior.
5. How many geographical regions can be found in the United States? What are they?
There are seven geographical regions in the United States. They are New England, the Middle Atlantic States, the southern States, the Midwestern States, the Rocky Mountain states, the Southwestern States, and the Pacific Coast States and the New States.
6. What states are in New England?
New England is made up of six states of the North-East. They are Maine, New Hampshire, Vermont, Massachusetts, Rhode Island, and Connecticut.
7. Apart from Now York City, what other large cites are located in the Middle Atlantic region?
Philadelphia, Pittsburgh, Buffalo, and Newark.
8. What is the Midwest famous for?
The Midwest is famous for its large stretches of fertile soil.
9. What states make up the Pacific Coast Region?
The region known as the Pacific Coast includes the western parts of Washington and Oregon and nearly all of California.
10. What role does tourism play in Hawaii’s economy?
Tourism is Hawaii’s most important industry.
11. What is the population of the United States? How does it rank in the world?
The United States is the third most populous country in the world after China and India, with a population of 267 million (estimated) in April 1997.
12. What is the reason for the growth of population in Florida?
It is because of its warm climate and convenience in doing business with and traveling to Central and South America.
13. Which are the five biggest cities, in terms of population, in the United States?
New York, Los Angeles, Chicago, San Francisco, Philadelphia.
14. Why are people moving so often in the United States?
People often move from one place to another for various reasons: to look for better job opportunity or for better climate or for other goals.
15. What are some of the consequences of the outflow of city residents to the suburbs?
The movement brings serious consequences to big cities: rising unemployment rate, the increase of the number of poor people, the worsening of city living conditions and the fall of government revenues.
16. Which are the three largest groups of Hispanics?
The Chicanos, the Puerto Ricans and the Cuban-Americans.
17. Why do many Puerto Ricans go to the United States?
They are drawn to the United States by better job opportunities.
18. What explanation do experts give for the success of Asian-Americans?
The experts attribute the success to Asian cultural tradition: emphasis on education, hard work and family.
19. What was the fate of Japanese-Americans in WWII?
The Japanese-Americans were taken to relocation centers in isolated parts of the western mountain and plains states and stayed behind barbed wires.
20. Can you give an example to show the awakening of American Indians?
Many Indians are taking legal steps to demand compensation for land and resources grabbed from them illegally.
21. What is one of the explanations of how the early Indians came to the Americans?
One of the explanations is the Indians crossed from Asia on the landbridge that connected Siberia and Alaska.
22. How did the Plymouth settlers manage to survive?
The neighboring Indians came to teach them how to grow corn and they succeeded in having a good harvest.
23. In what way were the Puritans different from the Pilgrims?
The Pilgrims were mostly poor, labouring people while the Puritans were wealthy, well-educated gentlemen.
24. Did the War of Independence start with the adoption of the Declaration of Independence?
No. It started when clashes took place at Concord and Lexington.
25. What was the chief weakness of the Articles of Confederation?
The chief weakness was the document failed to set up a government that could function.
26. What was the significance of the adoption of the Bill of Rights?
The adoption of the Bill of Rights in addition to the Constitution completed the foundation of the American constitutional system.
27. Why did American territorial expansion threaten British interest?
Because some Americans wanted to take advantage of the war in Europe to expand into Canada. This ran counter to British interest.
28. What was the Compromise of 1850?
The Compromise of 1850 was an arrangement which kept a balance between free and slave states in the Senate.
29. Why did the Civil War break out?
The Civil War broke out because the southern states left the Union and formed a new nation but president Lincoln was determined to maintain the Union.
30. How did the government help in the development of American economy?
The government carried out the policy of trade protectionism.
1. What were the three features in the growth of American economy at the beginning of the 20th century?
Large corporation, urbanization and new technology were the three features.
2. What was the basic demand of the Progressive Movement?
The basic demand was government regulation of economic and social conditions.
3. Why did the United States pursue a policy of pro-Ally partiality in the early part of WWI?
Because of ethnic ties, cultural tradition, social background, economic interests and successful British propaganda, the U.S. government pursued such a policy.
4. What were the immediate causes that led the United States into the war?
The immediate causes were Germany’s unlimited submarine warfare and Germany’s attempt to get Mexico into the war against the United States.
5. What government policies in the 1920s helped big business?
The policies of tariff protection, favorable tax rates and little government restrictions contributed to high profits of big businesses.
6. How did many Americans view their country after WWI?
They believed that American political, economic and social institutions were the best in the world.
7. What was the experience of WWI veterans demanding payment of bonuses in Washington D.C. in 1932?
They were driven out of the capital by military force directed by General McArthur.
8. What were some of the personal characteristics of F.D.R. that helped him in doing his work as president?
He had a sure sense of what was practical or possible, a strong sense of timing and was a great communicator.
9. What were the two guiding principles underlying American diplomatic activities in WWII?
The first was to win the war; the second was to bring the Soviet Union into a postwar world order under American leadership.
10. What was the basic reason for the postponement of the opening of the Second Front?
It was a reflection of the desire of not letting the Soviet Union expand into eastern and central Europe too quickly.
11. What was the postwar strategy of the United States?
The strategy was American leadership of the world and open market for American goods and capital.
12. What was the theory put forward by the Soviet Union in around 1946?
There could be no long-term peaceful co-existence between socialism and capitalism.
13. What was the immediate cause of the Berlin crisis in 1948?
The Soviet Union cut off Western routes to West Berlin.
14. What decision did President Truman make to deal with the Berlin crisis?
He decided to mobilize all possible American cargo planes to airlift supplies into West Berlin.
15. What effect did the Berlin blockade have on the people in West Berlin and western occupied zones?
it pushed the people in West Berlin and western occupied zones further to the side of the United States because they were grateful for American airlifts.
16. What measure did the United States take in the Cuban Missile Crisis?
The United States introduced a naval blockade around Cuba and demanded the dismantlement and withdrawal of the missiles from Cuba.
17. Did the allies of the United States give their full support to the U.S. in the Vietnam War?
No , some criticized the United States for escalation of the war, some refused to support American war efforts.
18. What is the significance of the Shanghai Communique?
The key thing is American commitment to a one China policy.
19. What is the importance of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
The Act outlawed racial discrimination in housing and employment.
20. What is the Port Huron Statement about?
The Port Huron Statement was the platform of the Students for a Democratic Society ( SDS ) which condemned racism, poverty amidst plenty, big corporations and the Cold War.
21. How does the United States rank among the countries of the world in the total value of its economic production?
The United States ranks first among the countries of the world in the value of its economic production.
22. What kind of system is the United States economy based on?
The United States economy is based on a free enterprise system.
23. What are the factors that have helped build the United States into the economic giant it is today?
The United States has one of the world’s most varied populations, and the vast space and resources of the land, the ideals of freedom and economic opportunity, and hard work by the people have helped build the United States into the economic giant it is today.
24. What are the major natural resources in the United States?
Fertile soil, forests, water, and minerals are the major natural resources in the United States.
25. What are some of the leading farm products in the United States?
They are corn, wheat, beef cattle, milk, soybeans, cotton, chickens and eggs, and hogs.
26. What has helped make U.S farms the most efficient in the world?
The use of modern farm machinery and agricultural methods has helped make U.S. farms the most efficient in the world.
27. What areas have long been major U.S centers of manufacturing?
The Midwest and Northeast.
28. How does California rank among the states in the value of its manufactured goods?
California ranks first among the states in the value of its manufactured goods.
29. What are the problems the U.S economy has faced form time to time?
They are recessions, depressions and inflation.
30. Why is the poverty rate higher in the United States than in several other industrialized nations, including Canada, Australia, and Germany?
Because they have more generous social programs for the poor and a higher minimum wage than the United States.
Large corporation, urbanization and new technology were the three features.
2. What was the basic demand of the Progressive Movement?
The basic demand was government regulation of economic and social conditions.
3. Why did the United States pursue a policy of pro-Ally partiality in the early part of WWI?
Because of ethnic ties, cultural tradition, social background, economic interests and successful British propaganda, the U.S. government pursued such a policy.
4. What were the immediate causes that led the United States into the war?
The immediate causes were Germany’s unlimited submarine warfare and Germany’s attempt to get Mexico into the war against the United States.
5. What government policies in the 1920s helped big business?
The policies of tariff protection, favorable tax rates and little government restrictions contributed to high profits of big businesses.
6. How did many Americans view their country after WWI?
They believed that American political, economic and social institutions were the best in the world.
7. What was the experience of WWI veterans demanding payment of bonuses in Washington D.C. in 1932?
They were driven out of the capital by military force directed by General McArthur.
8. What were some of the personal characteristics of F.D.R. that helped him in doing his work as president?
He had a sure sense of what was practical or possible, a strong sense of timing and was a great communicator.
9. What were the two guiding principles underlying American diplomatic activities in WWII?
The first was to win the war; the second was to bring the Soviet Union into a postwar world order under American leadership.
10. What was the basic reason for the postponement of the opening of the Second Front?
It was a reflection of the desire of not letting the Soviet Union expand into eastern and central Europe too quickly.
11. What was the postwar strategy of the United States?
The strategy was American leadership of the world and open market for American goods and capital.
12. What was the theory put forward by the Soviet Union in around 1946?
There could be no long-term peaceful co-existence between socialism and capitalism.
13. What was the immediate cause of the Berlin crisis in 1948?
The Soviet Union cut off Western routes to West Berlin.
14. What decision did President Truman make to deal with the Berlin crisis?
He decided to mobilize all possible American cargo planes to airlift supplies into West Berlin.
15. What effect did the Berlin blockade have on the people in West Berlin and western occupied zones?
it pushed the people in West Berlin and western occupied zones further to the side of the United States because they were grateful for American airlifts.
16. What measure did the United States take in the Cuban Missile Crisis?
The United States introduced a naval blockade around Cuba and demanded the dismantlement and withdrawal of the missiles from Cuba.
17. Did the allies of the United States give their full support to the U.S. in the Vietnam War?
No , some criticized the United States for escalation of the war, some refused to support American war efforts.
18. What is the significance of the Shanghai Communique?
The key thing is American commitment to a one China policy.
19. What is the importance of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
The Act outlawed racial discrimination in housing and employment.
20. What is the Port Huron Statement about?
The Port Huron Statement was the platform of the Students for a Democratic Society ( SDS ) which condemned racism, poverty amidst plenty, big corporations and the Cold War.
21. How does the United States rank among the countries of the world in the total value of its economic production?
The United States ranks first among the countries of the world in the value of its economic production.
22. What kind of system is the United States economy based on?
The United States economy is based on a free enterprise system.
23. What are the factors that have helped build the United States into the economic giant it is today?
The United States has one of the world’s most varied populations, and the vast space and resources of the land, the ideals of freedom and economic opportunity, and hard work by the people have helped build the United States into the economic giant it is today.
24. What are the major natural resources in the United States?
Fertile soil, forests, water, and minerals are the major natural resources in the United States.
25. What are some of the leading farm products in the United States?
They are corn, wheat, beef cattle, milk, soybeans, cotton, chickens and eggs, and hogs.
26. What has helped make U.S farms the most efficient in the world?
The use of modern farm machinery and agricultural methods has helped make U.S. farms the most efficient in the world.
27. What areas have long been major U.S centers of manufacturing?
The Midwest and Northeast.
28. How does California rank among the states in the value of its manufactured goods?
California ranks first among the states in the value of its manufactured goods.
29. What are the problems the U.S economy has faced form time to time?
They are recessions, depressions and inflation.
30. Why is the poverty rate higher in the United States than in several other industrialized nations, including Canada, Australia, and Germany?
Because they have more generous social programs for the poor and a higher minimum wage than the United States.
1. What role has the Constitution played?
The Constitution has been the basis for the evolution of governmental institutions and for political stability, economic growth and social progress in the United States.
2. What were the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?
The weaknesses were: there was no national executive to enforce the laws and there was no national court system and Congress had no power to tax, nor to regulate trade between states.
3. What mechanism did the writers of the Constitution introduce to provide safeguards?
They introduced the mechanism of separation of powers and checks and balances.
4. What are the three branches of the government?
They are the legislative, the executive and the judicial.
5. How is the American president elected?
The voters vote for the electors and the electors vote for the president. But as soon as the votes of the voters are counted the number of electors for each candidate is known and who has won the election is known.
6. According to the Constitution, what judicial power does the President have?
He has the power to give reprieves and pardons in federal criminal cases.
7. How are the two chambers of Congress made up?
The Senate is composed of two members from each state, with a total number of 100 while membership in the House of Representatives is based on population. Currently the House has 435 members.
8. What are the two special powers of the Senate?
One is to confirm presidential appointments and the other is to ratify treaties by a tow-thirds vote.
9. What is the composition of the federal court system?
The federal court system consists of a supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts ( including one for the District of Columbia and one for Puerto Rico ) and three courts of special jurisdiction.
10. What is the cause for the decline of the influence of political parties?
The near destruction of the patronage system and the wide use of direct primaries in the selection of delegates to the party national conventions contribute to the decline of the influence of political parties.
11. Is there any single sex educational institution in the U.S.?
Yes, there are quite a number.
12. Why is it that responsibility for education fall on the state?
Because it is laid down in the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution.
13. Why are there many variations in the education system of the 50 states?
Because each state is expected to develop policies for the education within its boundary.
14. Who is the chief executive officer under the local board of education?
The superintendent of schools.
15. What are the three types of high schools?
They are comprehensive, academic, vocational and technical schools.
16. Why does the number of graduate school enrollment keep climbing?
Because an advanced degree is viewed as a major way to move ahead in the career.
17. What are the fields favored by postgraduates?
Those fields that would not only make students easily employed but would provide them with rewarding jobs.
18. What is the guiding principle of community college?
It is higher education for everyone and the philosophy that equality must mena equal opportunity for self-realization and for the recognition of individual difference.
19. What are the two focuses of the reform in the 1980s?
They are the raising of the standards of teaching and learning and the restructuring of the schools.
20. Are the goals set out in the plan “America 2000” easy to achieve?
No, they are very difficult to achieve.
21. Who were the writers of the first American writings?
They were the first settlers.
22. How does the story “Rip Van Winkle” end?
When the story ends, Rip Van Winkle’s fierce wife is dead and he lives happily with his daughter.
23. What is Emerson’s view of man and nature?
He holds that man’s relationship with nature should not be confined to making use of nature.
24. Why did Hawthorne attack transcendentalism?
Because it glorified absolute individualism without any regard for social impact.
25. What does Mark Twain want to put across in The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn?
He wants to show the basic goodness and wisdom of ordinary people.
26. What does “leaf of grass” stand for?
It stands for all ordinary things and common people.
27. What were the two guides for Dickinson in her search for faith?
They wee the Bible and the philosophy of Emerson.
28. What contrast did Dreiser make in Sister Carrie?
He made sharp contrast of wealth and poverty in Chicago and New York.
29. What was the first uniquely American contribution to architecture?
It was skyscraper.
30. When did rock ‘n’ roll become the standard form of popular music for teenagers?
By the early 1960s it had become the standard popular m
The Constitution has been the basis for the evolution of governmental institutions and for political stability, economic growth and social progress in the United States.
2. What were the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?
The weaknesses were: there was no national executive to enforce the laws and there was no national court system and Congress had no power to tax, nor to regulate trade between states.
3. What mechanism did the writers of the Constitution introduce to provide safeguards?
They introduced the mechanism of separation of powers and checks and balances.
4. What are the three branches of the government?
They are the legislative, the executive and the judicial.
5. How is the American president elected?
The voters vote for the electors and the electors vote for the president. But as soon as the votes of the voters are counted the number of electors for each candidate is known and who has won the election is known.
6. According to the Constitution, what judicial power does the President have?
He has the power to give reprieves and pardons in federal criminal cases.
7. How are the two chambers of Congress made up?
The Senate is composed of two members from each state, with a total number of 100 while membership in the House of Representatives is based on population. Currently the House has 435 members.
8. What are the two special powers of the Senate?
One is to confirm presidential appointments and the other is to ratify treaties by a tow-thirds vote.
9. What is the composition of the federal court system?
The federal court system consists of a supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts ( including one for the District of Columbia and one for Puerto Rico ) and three courts of special jurisdiction.
10. What is the cause for the decline of the influence of political parties?
The near destruction of the patronage system and the wide use of direct primaries in the selection of delegates to the party national conventions contribute to the decline of the influence of political parties.
11. Is there any single sex educational institution in the U.S.?
Yes, there are quite a number.
12. Why is it that responsibility for education fall on the state?
Because it is laid down in the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution.
13. Why are there many variations in the education system of the 50 states?
Because each state is expected to develop policies for the education within its boundary.
14. Who is the chief executive officer under the local board of education?
The superintendent of schools.
15. What are the three types of high schools?
They are comprehensive, academic, vocational and technical schools.
16. Why does the number of graduate school enrollment keep climbing?
Because an advanced degree is viewed as a major way to move ahead in the career.
17. What are the fields favored by postgraduates?
Those fields that would not only make students easily employed but would provide them with rewarding jobs.
18. What is the guiding principle of community college?
It is higher education for everyone and the philosophy that equality must mena equal opportunity for self-realization and for the recognition of individual difference.
19. What are the two focuses of the reform in the 1980s?
They are the raising of the standards of teaching and learning and the restructuring of the schools.
20. Are the goals set out in the plan “America 2000” easy to achieve?
No, they are very difficult to achieve.
21. Who were the writers of the first American writings?
They were the first settlers.
22. How does the story “Rip Van Winkle” end?
When the story ends, Rip Van Winkle’s fierce wife is dead and he lives happily with his daughter.
23. What is Emerson’s view of man and nature?
He holds that man’s relationship with nature should not be confined to making use of nature.
24. Why did Hawthorne attack transcendentalism?
Because it glorified absolute individualism without any regard for social impact.
25. What does Mark Twain want to put across in The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn?
He wants to show the basic goodness and wisdom of ordinary people.
26. What does “leaf of grass” stand for?
It stands for all ordinary things and common people.
27. What were the two guides for Dickinson in her search for faith?
They wee the Bible and the philosophy of Emerson.
28. What contrast did Dreiser make in Sister Carrie?
He made sharp contrast of wealth and poverty in Chicago and New York.
29. What was the first uniquely American contribution to architecture?
It was skyscraper.
30. When did rock ‘n’ roll become the standard form of popular music for teenagers?
By the early 1960s it had become the standard popular m
1. What do people say to each other at Time Square when the clock strikes at twelve o’clock on New Year’s Day?
They say Happy New Year.
2. Why did Congress vote to set a day in honor of Martin Luther King?
Because he was respected and loved by the Americans, black and white, for his leadership of the Civil Rights Movement.
3. Why was Lincoln considered to be a man who lived out the American Dream?
Because Lincoln was born in a poor family in Kentucky and through hard work and study , honesty, he became America’s sixteenth President.
4. What do people usually do on Valentine’s Day?
It is popular to send cards decorated with hearts and flowers to express love.
5. Why do children eat cherry pies on Washington’s birthday?
Because they are familiar with the story of Washington and the cherry tree and they eat cherry pie to remember him as an honest man.
6. What are the two symbols frequently associated with Easter
They are the egg and the hare ( or the bunny ).
7. What did a group of women in the south do on May 30, 1868?
They decorated the graves of both Union and Confederate soldiers.
8. Why were American children awarded the 1965 Nobel Prize for peace?
They were awarded the prize for their collection of money for UNICEF to help children in developing countries.
9. Why was the unknown soldier buried at Arlington in 1921 awarded two medals?
The honors were not for one but for all who had given their lives in the war.
10. What is the typical food for Thanksgiving dinner?
The typical food is roast turkey, pumpkin pie and cranberry sauce.
They say Happy New Year.
2. Why did Congress vote to set a day in honor of Martin Luther King?
Because he was respected and loved by the Americans, black and white, for his leadership of the Civil Rights Movement.
3. Why was Lincoln considered to be a man who lived out the American Dream?
Because Lincoln was born in a poor family in Kentucky and through hard work and study , honesty, he became America’s sixteenth President.
4. What do people usually do on Valentine’s Day?
It is popular to send cards decorated with hearts and flowers to express love.
5. Why do children eat cherry pies on Washington’s birthday?
Because they are familiar with the story of Washington and the cherry tree and they eat cherry pie to remember him as an honest man.
6. What are the two symbols frequently associated with Easter
They are the egg and the hare ( or the bunny ).
7. What did a group of women in the south do on May 30, 1868?
They decorated the graves of both Union and Confederate soldiers.
8. Why were American children awarded the 1965 Nobel Prize for peace?
They were awarded the prize for their collection of money for UNICEF to help children in developing countries.
9. Why was the unknown soldier buried at Arlington in 1921 awarded two medals?
The honors were not for one but for all who had given their lives in the war.
10. What is the typical food for Thanksgiving dinner?
The typical food is roast turkey, pumpkin pie and cranberry sauce.
爱尔兰
1． Why is Ireland also called the Emerald Isle?
Rolling farmlands and pastures cover the central part of the island and they remain green all year round.
2． Why has Ireland been geographically compared to a basin?
Because the central part of the island is lowland and it has mountains around it near the coasts.
3． What is the largest river in Ireland?
The Shannon River is the largest river in Ireland.
4． What kind of climate does Ireland have?
It has a mild and moist climate all year round.
5． Why did the population of Ireland decrease from the 1840s until about 1970?
Because it had a high emigration rate.
6． What percentage of people are Roman Catholics?
93.1% of people are Roman Catholics.
7． What is the traditional tongue of Ireland?
Irish.
8． When and how did the partition of Ireland occur?
The partition of Ireland occurred in 1921 under the Anglo Irish Treaty.
9． When did Eire become the Republic of Ireland?
In April 1949.
10．When was the Downing Street Declaration issued?
In December 1993.
11. Who is the head of state in Ireland?
The president is the head of state in Ireland.
12. Who is the head of government in Ireland?
The prime minister is the head of government in Ireland.
13. What does the Irish parliament consist of?
The Irish parliament consists of the House of Representatives (Dail Eireann) and the Senate (Seanad).
14. What are the two major political parties in Ireland?
They are Fianna Fail and Fine Gael.
15. What does Fianna Fail mean in Irish?
It means “soldiers of destiny” in Irish.
16. What does Fine Gael mean in Irish?
It means “Irish tribe” or “united Ireland” in Irish.
17. Why is Irish farming a mixed economy?
Most of the Irish farmers have a small piece of arable land and a considerable area of pasture and meadow. They depend chiefly for their living on occasional cash crops and some form of livestock.
18. Why does Ireland have a chronic imbalance of trade?
Ireland depends on imported oil and it has a high import bill.
19. What kind of Language is Irish?
Irish is a Celtic language.
20. Who is regarded as one of the most influential writers of the 20th century?
James Joyce is regarded as one of the most influential writers of the 20th century.
1． Why is Ireland also called the Emerald Isle?
Rolling farmlands and pastures cover the central part of the island and they remain green all year round.
2． Why has Ireland been geographically compared to a basin?
Because the central part of the island is lowland and it has mountains around it near the coasts.
3． What is the largest river in Ireland?
The Shannon River is the largest river in Ireland.
4． What kind of climate does Ireland have?
It has a mild and moist climate all year round.
5． Why did the population of Ireland decrease from the 1840s until about 1970?
Because it had a high emigration rate.
6． What percentage of people are Roman Catholics?
93.1% of people are Roman Catholics.
7． What is the traditional tongue of Ireland?
Irish.
8． When and how did the partition of Ireland occur?
The partition of Ireland occurred in 1921 under the Anglo Irish Treaty.
9． When did Eire become the Republic of Ireland?
In April 1949.
10．When was the Downing Street Declaration issued?
In December 1993.
11. Who is the head of state in Ireland?
The president is the head of state in Ireland.
12. Who is the head of government in Ireland?
The prime minister is the head of government in Ireland.
13. What does the Irish parliament consist of?
The Irish parliament consists of the House of Representatives (Dail Eireann) and the Senate (Seanad).
14. What are the two major political parties in Ireland?
They are Fianna Fail and Fine Gael.
15. What does Fianna Fail mean in Irish?
It means “soldiers of destiny” in Irish.
16. What does Fine Gael mean in Irish?
It means “Irish tribe” or “united Ireland” in Irish.
17. Why is Irish farming a mixed economy?
Most of the Irish farmers have a small piece of arable land and a considerable area of pasture and meadow. They depend chiefly for their living on occasional cash crops and some form of livestock.
18. Why does Ireland have a chronic imbalance of trade?
Ireland depends on imported oil and it has a high import bill.
19. What kind of Language is Irish?
Irish is a Celtic language.
20. Who is regarded as one of the most influential writers of the 20th century?
James Joyce is regarded as one of the most influential writers of the 20th century.
加拿大
1. Where is Canada located?
Canada is located in the Western Hemisphere.
Canada lies to the north of the United States.
2. How big is Canada? Which country is bigger than Canada?
Canada is the world’s second largest country after Russia. It is the largest country in the Western Hemisphere.
3. How could you describe Canada’s climate?
Because of its size, Canada has a great variety of climatic conditions. Generally speaking, the climate in Canada is unfavourable because much of the country has long and cold winters with deep snow.
4. What are Canada’s two largest lakes?
Canada’s two largest lakes are Lakes Superior and Huron.
5. Who founded the first permanent settlements at Quebec and Montreal in 1608?
Samuel de Champlain did.
6. What happened to the French colony after the Seven Years’ War?
After the Seven Years’ War the French were forced to give up every inch of land in North America and the whole of Canada came under the British rule.
7. Who were the first British settlers in Canada?
They were American refugees who refused to fight against the British army in the War of American Independence.
8. What happened to Lower Canada and Upper Canada under the Act of Union in 1840?
Under the Act of Union in 1840 lower Canada and Upper Canada were united to form the province of Canada which had two sections: Canada West and Canada East.
9. What was the most important event that took place in Canada under Sir John Macdonald?
In 1869, under Sir John Macdonald, Canada bought from the Hudson Bay Company the vast middle west from which the province of Manitoba and other prairie provinces and northern territories were formed.
10. When and how did Canada become a sovereign nation?
By the Statute of Westminster in 1931 Canada became a sovereign nation.
11. What are the most important natural resources in Canada?
They are water and water power, fish, forests, and furs.
12. Why is the Canadian Shield so important to Canada’s economy?
A great belt of forest land stretches across the Canadian Shield, which provides raw materials for Canada’s lumbering and paper products industry.
13. What are Canada’s main agricultural products?
They are wheat, barley, oats, dairy products, meat, and fruit.
14. What is Canada’s chief manufacturing industry?
Transportation equipment is Canada’s chief manufacturing industry.
15. What were Canada’s major exports in 1994?
They were motor vehicles and parts, mineral fuels, machinery, wood products, paper and paperboard, electrical equipment, wood pulp, aluminium products, and cereals.
16. What were Canada’s major imports in 1994?
They were motor vehicles and parts, heavy machinery, communication equipment, office equipment, and industrial machinery.
17. What does NAFTA stand for?
NAFTA stands for North America Free Trade Agreement.
18. Why did America start to get involved in Canadian manufacturing in the late 19th century?
American-owned firms built branch plants to serve the Canadian market and thereby avoid the tariffs involved in exporting their products to Canada.
19. What was the labor force in Canada in 1994?
It was 14.8 million in Canada in 1994.
20. What economic problems does Canada have today?
They are unemployment, a negative balance of payments, a fiscal deficit, and slow growth in some regions in Canada.
21. What kind of system of government does Canada have?
Canada has a federal system of government.
22. What is the difference between territories and provinces?
Territories have less autonomy from the federal government than provinces have.
23. What does the Canadian Parliament consist of?
The Canadian Parliament consists of the British Queen and two houses: the House of Commons and the Senate.
24. Who is head of state in Canada?
The sovereign of Great Britain is head of state in Canada.
25. Who is head of government in Canada?
The prime minister is head of government in Canada?
26. What are the two main political parties in Canada?
The two main political parties in Canada are the Liberal Party and the Progressive Conservative Party.
27. In what way does Quebec differ from other provinces?
Quebec has a strong French culture.
28. Who was Rene Levesque?
He was a popular Quebec politician who created a movement dedicated to giving Quebec full sovereignty, together with an association with the rest of Canada.
29. What does “sovereignty-association” mean?
“ Sovereignty-association” means giving Quebec full sovereignty, together with an association with the rest of Canada.
30. What happened to the 1995 referendum on Quebec’s future status?
It was rejected by the barest margin: less than 1% divided the no votes from the yes votes.
31. Why has Canada’s population grown quickly since World War II ended in 1945?
It was due to heavy immigration and a relatively high birth rate.
32. What are the two largest ethnic groups in Canada?
The two largest groups are those of British and French origin.
33. In which province do most of the French-speaking Canadians live?
Most of the French-speaking Canadians live in the province of Quebec.
34. Who are the native peoples of Canada?
They are American Indians and Inuit.
35. What is the most popular sport in Canada?
Hockey is the most popular sport in Canada.
36. What are the most common leisure activities in Canada?
They are swimming, tennis, golf and baseball.
37. What elements of Canada’s character have contributed to the formation of Canadian culture?
The bilingual, multicultural and North American elements of Canada’s character have contributed to the formation of Canadian culture.
38. Which group developed the first distinctly Canadian style of painting?
The Group of Seven developed the first distinctly Canadian style of painting.
39. Who was Stephen Leacock?
He was a Canadian writer and economist. He is best known for his essays, parodies and short stories.
40. What does the Canada Council do to promote Canadian culture?
The Canada Council provides financial assistance to individual artists and to orchestras, theatres, and other organizations.
1. Where is Canada located?
Canada is located in the Western Hemisphere.
Canada lies to the north of the United States.
2. How big is Canada? Which country is bigger than Canada?
Canada is the world’s second largest country after Russia. It is the largest country in the Western Hemisphere.
3. How could you describe Canada’s climate?
Because of its size, Canada has a great variety of climatic conditions. Generally speaking, the climate in Canada is unfavourable because much of the country has long and cold winters with deep snow.
4. What are Canada’s two largest lakes?
Canada’s two largest lakes are Lakes Superior and Huron.
5. Who founded the first permanent settlements at Quebec and Montreal in 1608?
Samuel de Champlain did.
6. What happened to the French colony after the Seven Years’ War?
After the Seven Years’ War the French were forced to give up every inch of land in North America and the whole of Canada came under the British rule.
7. Who were the first British settlers in Canada?
They were American refugees who refused to fight against the British army in the War of American Independence.
8. What happened to Lower Canada and Upper Canada under the Act of Union in 1840?
Under the Act of Union in 1840 lower Canada and Upper Canada were united to form the province of Canada which had two sections: Canada West and Canada East.
9. What was the most important event that took place in Canada under Sir John Macdonald?
In 1869, under Sir John Macdonald, Canada bought from the Hudson Bay Company the vast middle west from which the province of Manitoba and other prairie provinces and northern territories were formed.
10. When and how did Canada become a sovereign nation?
By the Statute of Westminster in 1931 Canada became a sovereign nation.
11. What are the most important natural resources in Canada?
They are water and water power, fish, forests, and furs.
12. Why is the Canadian Shield so important to Canada’s economy?
A great belt of forest land stretches across the Canadian Shield, which provides raw materials for Canada’s lumbering and paper products industry.
13. What are Canada’s main agricultural products?
They are wheat, barley, oats, dairy products, meat, and fruit.
14. What is Canada’s chief manufacturing industry?
Transportation equipment is Canada’s chief manufacturing industry.
15. What were Canada’s major exports in 1994?
They were motor vehicles and parts, mineral fuels, machinery, wood products, paper and paperboard, electrical equipment, wood pulp, aluminium products, and cereals.
16. What were Canada’s major imports in 1994?
They were motor vehicles and parts, heavy machinery, communication equipment, office equipment, and industrial machinery.
17. What does NAFTA stand for?
NAFTA stands for North America Free Trade Agreement.
18. Why did America start to get involved in Canadian manufacturing in the late 19th century?
American-owned firms built branch plants to serve the Canadian market and thereby avoid the tariffs involved in exporting their products to Canada.
19. What was the labor force in Canada in 1994?
It was 14.8 million in Canada in 1994.
20. What economic problems does Canada have today?
They are unemployment, a negative balance of payments, a fiscal deficit, and slow growth in some regions in Canada.
21. What kind of system of government does Canada have?
Canada has a federal system of government.
22. What is the difference between territories and provinces?
Territories have less autonomy from the federal government than provinces have.
23. What does the Canadian Parliament consist of?
The Canadian Parliament consists of the British Queen and two houses: the House of Commons and the Senate.
24. Who is head of state in Canada?
The sovereign of Great Britain is head of state in Canada.
25. Who is head of government in Canada?
The prime minister is head of government in Canada?
26. What are the two main political parties in Canada?
The two main political parties in Canada are the Liberal Party and the Progressive Conservative Party.
27. In what way does Quebec differ from other provinces?
Quebec has a strong French culture.
28. Who was Rene Levesque?
He was a popular Quebec politician who created a movement dedicated to giving Quebec full sovereignty, together with an association with the rest of Canada.
29. What does “sovereignty-association” mean?
“ Sovereignty-association” means giving Quebec full sovereignty, together with an association with the rest of Canada.
30. What happened to the 1995 referendum on Quebec’s future status?
It was rejected by the barest margin: less than 1% divided the no votes from the yes votes.
31. Why has Canada’s population grown quickly since World War II ended in 1945?
It was due to heavy immigration and a relatively high birth rate.
32. What are the two largest ethnic groups in Canada?
The two largest groups are those of British and French origin.
33. In which province do most of the French-speaking Canadians live?
Most of the French-speaking Canadians live in the province of Quebec.
34. Who are the native peoples of Canada?
They are American Indians and Inuit.
35. What is the most popular sport in Canada?
Hockey is the most popular sport in Canada.
36. What are the most common leisure activities in Canada?
They are swimming, tennis, golf and baseball.
37. What elements of Canada’s character have contributed to the formation of Canadian culture?
The bilingual, multicultural and North American elements of Canada’s character have contributed to the formation of Canadian culture.
38. Which group developed the first distinctly Canadian style of painting?
The Group of Seven developed the first distinctly Canadian style of painting.
39. Who was Stephen Leacock?
He was a Canadian writer and economist. He is best known for his essays, parodies and short stories.
40. What does the Canada Council do to promote Canadian culture?
The Canada Council provides financial assistance to individual artists and to orchestras, theatres, and other organizations.
澳大利亚
1. Why is Australia sometimes called the “land Down Under”?
Australia is sometimes called the Land Down Under because it is situated in the Southern Hemisphere. It is halfway around the world from England, its mother country.
2. Australia is generally divided into three topographical regions. What are they?
They are the Western Plateau, the Eastern Highlands and the Central Eastern lowlands.
3. What kind of climate does Australia have?
The interior of Australia has a hot and dry climate, but the coastal areas have a maritime climate.
4. What are the effects of such a climate?
(a) Most Australians live on the south-east coastland.
(b) Plants that can thrive in hot dry conditions are usually small plants such as grasses and shrubs.
5. What are the most common native plants and animals in Australia?
The most common native plants are eucalypts and wattles.
The most common native animals are kangaroos and emus.
6. There are many aspects of Australian way of life that are still British. Give two or three examples.
(a) The system of government is modeled on the Westminster system.
(b) The Australian flag has the Union Jack in the top left corner.
© The head of the Australian government is the Queen of England.
7. Into what political divisions is Australia separated? List the names of the states and territories.
Australia is politically divided into six states and two territories. The six states are New South Wales, Victoria, Queensland, South Australia, Western Australia and Tasmania. The two territories are the Northern Territory and the Australian Capital Territory.
8. In terms of land area and population, which is the biggest state and which is the smallest state in Australia?
In terms of land area, the biggest is Western Australia and the smallest is Tasmania. In terms of population, the biggest is New South Wales and the smallest is Tasmania.
9. What are Australia’s major cities?
They are Sydney, Melbourne, Brisbane, Adelaide, Perth and Canberra.
10. Why is Australia regarded as one of the most urbanized countries in the world?
Because 80% of Australians live in the suburbs of coastal cities and towns.
11. What are the three periods into which Australia is divided?
The first period is from the arrival of aborigines to the colonization of Australia by the British in 1788. The second period is the colonial period which lasted until 1901. The third period is from federation in 1901 to the present.
12. Where are the Aborigines believed to have come from?
It is believed that the Aborigines came to Australia from Southeast Asia.
13. Why are the Aborigines usually described as hunter-gatherers?
Because they lived from the land by hunting animals and birds, by catching fish and gathering plant foods, shellfish and eggs.
14. What is the significance of the land to the Aborigines?
The land was central in the life of the Aborigines. They got their living from it and it shaped their religious beliefs. They believed that they did not own the land but that the land owned them.
15. Who was James Cook?
He was an English navigator and explorer. He sighted the eastern coast of Australia and named the region around it New South Wales. He took possession of New South Wales in the name of King George III of England.
16. Why did the British decide to establish a penal colony in Australia?
The British decided to establish a penal colony in Australia to receive convicts from Britain.
17. How did a gold rush start in Australia at the beginning of the 1850s?
The first official discoverer of gold in Australia was Edward Hargraves. He used his panning experience from the Californian diggings to find gold near Bathurst(NSW) in February 1851. Coupled with finds by his associates this started a gold rush.
18. What were the causes of the Eureka Stockade?
Causes of the Eureka Stockade included resentment against the licensing system for goldminers and the harsh way it was administered, as well as a general demand for voting rights by the miners.
19. What changes took place in Australia in the three decades following the goldrushes of the 1850s?
The three decades following the 1850s goldrushes were a period of great development in Australia. Considerable changes took place in daily life, work, industry and people’s attitudes in the cities and in the country.
20. What did the Australian colonies decide to do at the end of the 1890s?
They decided to join together to form a unified nation.
21. What was the main argument for federation put forward by the nationalists?
Australia should be kept white, and preferably of British stock.
22. Why did the businessmen support federation?
They supported free, Australia-wide trade because trade restrictions and tariff barriers at the borders between the colonies weakened the Australian economy.
23. Who gave great encouragement to the federation conferences and debates during the 1880s?
Henry Parkes and Edmund Barton of NSW, Alfred Deakin of Victoria and Samuel Griffith of Queensland did.
24. What was the nature of the White Australia Policy?
It was an immigration policy based on racial discrimination.
25. What was the significance of the Gallipoli campaign to Australia?
It was a complete military defeat, but it was seen as a noble defeat, not as something shameful. It was and is still hailed as Australia’s coming of age.
26. What caused a serious economic downfall in Australia at the end of the 1920s?
World prices of wheat and wool dropped from the 1927-1928 period, and demand for Australian produce fell when overseas markets started buying from other countries that were able to sell at cheaper prices.
27. How did the Pearl Harbor incident affect the Australian people?
There was a very real fear among the Australians that Australia might be invaded.
28. What were the main objectives of the Chifley government after the war?
They were full employment and social security.
29. What happened to the Whitlam government on 11 November 1975?
It was dismissed by the Governor-General John Kerr.
30. What was the major problem facing the Australian economy by the end of the 1980s?
It was the current account deficit.
1. Why is Australia sometimes called the “land Down Under”?
Australia is sometimes called the Land Down Under because it is situated in the Southern Hemisphere. It is halfway around the world from England, its mother country.
2. Australia is generally divided into three topographical regions. What are they?
They are the Western Plateau, the Eastern Highlands and the Central Eastern lowlands.
3. What kind of climate does Australia have?
The interior of Australia has a hot and dry climate, but the coastal areas have a maritime climate.
4. What are the effects of such a climate?
(a) Most Australians live on the south-east coastland.
(b) Plants that can thrive in hot dry conditions are usually small plants such as grasses and shrubs.
5. What are the most common native plants and animals in Australia?
The most common native plants are eucalypts and wattles.
The most common native animals are kangaroos and emus.
6. There are many aspects of Australian way of life that are still British. Give two or three examples.
(a) The system of government is modeled on the Westminster system.
(b) The Australian flag has the Union Jack in the top left corner.
© The head of the Australian government is the Queen of England.
7. Into what political divisions is Australia separated? List the names of the states and territories.
Australia is politically divided into six states and two territories. The six states are New South Wales, Victoria, Queensland, South Australia, Western Australia and Tasmania. The two territories are the Northern Territory and the Australian Capital Territory.
8. In terms of land area and population, which is the biggest state and which is the smallest state in Australia?
In terms of land area, the biggest is Western Australia and the smallest is Tasmania. In terms of population, the biggest is New South Wales and the smallest is Tasmania.
9. What are Australia’s major cities?
They are Sydney, Melbourne, Brisbane, Adelaide, Perth and Canberra.
10. Why is Australia regarded as one of the most urbanized countries in the world?
Because 80% of Australians live in the suburbs of coastal cities and towns.
11. What are the three periods into which Australia is divided?
The first period is from the arrival of aborigines to the colonization of Australia by the British in 1788. The second period is the colonial period which lasted until 1901. The third period is from federation in 1901 to the present.
12. Where are the Aborigines believed to have come from?
It is believed that the Aborigines came to Australia from Southeast Asia.
13. Why are the Aborigines usually described as hunter-gatherers?
Because they lived from the land by hunting animals and birds, by catching fish and gathering plant foods, shellfish and eggs.
14. What is the significance of the land to the Aborigines?
The land was central in the life of the Aborigines. They got their living from it and it shaped their religious beliefs. They believed that they did not own the land but that the land owned them.
15. Who was James Cook?
He was an English navigator and explorer. He sighted the eastern coast of Australia and named the region around it New South Wales. He took possession of New South Wales in the name of King George III of England.
16. Why did the British decide to establish a penal colony in Australia?
The British decided to establish a penal colony in Australia to receive convicts from Britain.
17. How did a gold rush start in Australia at the beginning of the 1850s?
The first official discoverer of gold in Australia was Edward Hargraves. He used his panning experience from the Californian diggings to find gold near Bathurst(NSW) in February 1851. Coupled with finds by his associates this started a gold rush.
18. What were the causes of the Eureka Stockade?
Causes of the Eureka Stockade included resentment against the licensing system for goldminers and the harsh way it was administered, as well as a general demand for voting rights by the miners.
19. What changes took place in Australia in the three decades following the goldrushes of the 1850s?
The three decades following the 1850s goldrushes were a period of great development in Australia. Considerable changes took place in daily life, work, industry and people’s attitudes in the cities and in the country.
20. What did the Australian colonies decide to do at the end of the 1890s?
They decided to join together to form a unified nation.
21. What was the main argument for federation put forward by the nationalists?
Australia should be kept white, and preferably of British stock.
22. Why did the businessmen support federation?
They supported free, Australia-wide trade because trade restrictions and tariff barriers at the borders between the colonies weakened the Australian economy.
23. Who gave great encouragement to the federation conferences and debates during the 1880s?
Henry Parkes and Edmund Barton of NSW, Alfred Deakin of Victoria and Samuel Griffith of Queensland did.
24. What was the nature of the White Australia Policy?
It was an immigration policy based on racial discrimination.
25. What was the significance of the Gallipoli campaign to Australia?
It was a complete military defeat, but it was seen as a noble defeat, not as something shameful. It was and is still hailed as Australia’s coming of age.
26. What caused a serious economic downfall in Australia at the end of the 1920s?
World prices of wheat and wool dropped from the 1927-1928 period, and demand for Australian produce fell when overseas markets started buying from other countries that were able to sell at cheaper prices.
27. How did the Pearl Harbor incident affect the Australian people?
There was a very real fear among the Australians that Australia might be invaded.
28. What were the main objectives of the Chifley government after the war?
They were full employment and social security.
29. What happened to the Whitlam government on 11 November 1975?
It was dismissed by the Governor-General John Kerr.
30. What was the major problem facing the Australian economy by the end of the 1980s?
It was the current account deficit.
1. What are the factors that have affected the efficiency of Australian manufacturing?
Australia’s limited local market, its geographical isolation and high levels of tariff protection are the factors that have affected the efficiency of Australian manufacturing.
2. Why has the Australian government put up tariff and nontariff barriers to trade?
The aim has been to support domestic protection and maintain full employment.
3. What has been a key factor in the history of agriculture in Australia?
A key factor in the history of agriculture has been the ability to compete effectively on world markets.
4. Why is the minerals and energy industry central to the Australian economy?
Because it has been a major source of export earnings and a recurring catalyst to Australia’s economic development.
5. Why has the service industry been growing so fast in Australia in recent decades?
This is due to higher living standards and greater demand for more and better transport and housing, and the expansion by governments of educational, health and welfare services.
6. What is the main feature of Australia’s trade?
The main feature of Australia’s trade is the exchange of raw materials for finished producets.
7. Why has the terms of trade been moving steadily against Australia in recent decades?
In recent years commodity prices have tended to decline while prices of manufactured goods have tended to go up.
8. What is the solution to the problem posed by Australia’s worsening terms of trade?
The solution to the problem is to reduce Australia’s reliance on commodity exports by diversifying and increasing in manufactured exports.
9. What is the Achilles heel of the Australian economy today?
The Achilles heel of the Australian economy today is that, although its structure is geared to international trade, its participation in trade has declined.
10. What has been happening in Australia’s economy since the mid-1980s?
A restructuring of Australia’s economy has been going on in Australia since the mid-1980s.
11. What does the Australian Constitution deal with?
The Australian Constitution deals with the composition of the Australian federal government and the powers of the government and the relationship between the federal government and the governments of the States.
12. What are the two principles the Australian Constitution is based on?
The Australian Constitution is based on the principle of federalism and the principle of responsible government.
13. What is the only practical way of changing the Australian Constitution?
The only practical way of changing the Australian Constitution is by referendum.
14. What does the Australian Federal Parliament consist of?
It consists of the British monarch, the House of Representatives and the Senate.
15. Who is constitutionally head of state in Australia?
The British monarch is head of state in Australia.
16. Do the House of Representatives and the Senate have exactly equal powers?
No. They have almost equal powers except that the Senate cannot originate “money bills”.
17. What are the functions of the Senate?
The Senate in Australia has functioned as a house of review and it also represents the interests of the States.
18. There are three major political parties in Australia. What are they?
They are the Australian Labor Party, the Liberal Party of Australia and the National Party of Australia.
19. What do minor parties aim to do?
They aim to obtain the balance of power in either House so that they can exert power on the party or parties which form the government.
20. What are the roles of the High Court?
It is the final court of Appeal. It hears appeals from State Supreme Courts and it also has the task of interpreting the Constitution and applying meaning to the cases that come before it.
21. What is the life expectancy of Aborigines in Australia?
The life expectancy of Aborigines is generally 20 years shorter than that of non-Aboriginal Australians.
22. When did the Aboriginal people in Australia gain the right to determine their own affairs?
In 1972 the Aboriginal people in Australia gained the right to determine their own affairs.
23. When did the land rights movement start in Australia?
The land rights movement in Australia started at the beginning of the 1970s.
24. What is the significance of the Mabo Judgement?
The Mabo Judgement recognizes that Australia was not, in law, unoccupied at the time of European settlement.
25. What was the policy of assimilation?
The policy of assimilation involved an immediate attempt to strip immigrants of their cultures, social practices and languages. The migrant was to forget the “old country” and adopt the Anglo-Australian way of life.
26. What was the dominant aspect of Aboriginal culture?
The dominant aspect of Aboriginal culture was the balance between these people and their environment.
27. What are the main components of modern Australian culture?
The main components of modern Australian culture is a mixture of many traditions and influences which overlap: British, American, European and Asian.
28. What is the republic debate in Australia?
The republic debate in Australia is about whether Australia should remain a monarchy or become a republic.
29. What kind of republic do the minimalists propose?
The minimalists propose a republic with a president elected or appointed by parliament.
30. What are the views of the maximalists?
The maximalists want to go further than replacing the Queen with a president. They want to reform the Constitution so that a Bill of Rights could be written into it.
Australia’s limited local market, its geographical isolation and high levels of tariff protection are the factors that have affected the efficiency of Australian manufacturing.
2. Why has the Australian government put up tariff and nontariff barriers to trade?
The aim has been to support domestic protection and maintain full employment.
3. What has been a key factor in the history of agriculture in Australia?
A key factor in the history of agriculture has been the ability to compete effectively on world markets.
4. Why is the minerals and energy industry central to the Australian economy?
Because it has been a major source of export earnings and a recurring catalyst to Australia’s economic development.
5. Why has the service industry been growing so fast in Australia in recent decades?
This is due to higher living standards and greater demand for more and better transport and housing, and the expansion by governments of educational, health and welfare services.
6. What is the main feature of Australia’s trade?
The main feature of Australia’s trade is the exchange of raw materials for finished producets.
7. Why has the terms of trade been moving steadily against Australia in recent decades?
In recent years commodity prices have tended to decline while prices of manufactured goods have tended to go up.
8. What is the solution to the problem posed by Australia’s worsening terms of trade?
The solution to the problem is to reduce Australia’s reliance on commodity exports by diversifying and increasing in manufactured exports.
9. What is the Achilles heel of the Australian economy today?
The Achilles heel of the Australian economy today is that, although its structure is geared to international trade, its participation in trade has declined.
10. What has been happening in Australia’s economy since the mid-1980s?
A restructuring of Australia’s economy has been going on in Australia since the mid-1980s.
11. What does the Australian Constitution deal with?
The Australian Constitution deals with the composition of the Australian federal government and the powers of the government and the relationship between the federal government and the governments of the States.
12. What are the two principles the Australian Constitution is based on?
The Australian Constitution is based on the principle of federalism and the principle of responsible government.
13. What is the only practical way of changing the Australian Constitution?
The only practical way of changing the Australian Constitution is by referendum.
14. What does the Australian Federal Parliament consist of?
It consists of the British monarch, the House of Representatives and the Senate.
15. Who is constitutionally head of state in Australia?
The British monarch is head of state in Australia.
16. Do the House of Representatives and the Senate have exactly equal powers?
No. They have almost equal powers except that the Senate cannot originate “money bills”.
17. What are the functions of the Senate?
The Senate in Australia has functioned as a house of review and it also represents the interests of the States.
18. There are three major political parties in Australia. What are they?
They are the Australian Labor Party, the Liberal Party of Australia and the National Party of Australia.
19. What do minor parties aim to do?
They aim to obtain the balance of power in either House so that they can exert power on the party or parties which form the government.
20. What are the roles of the High Court?
It is the final court of Appeal. It hears appeals from State Supreme Courts and it also has the task of interpreting the Constitution and applying meaning to the cases that come before it.
21. What is the life expectancy of Aborigines in Australia?
The life expectancy of Aborigines is generally 20 years shorter than that of non-Aboriginal Australians.
22. When did the Aboriginal people in Australia gain the right to determine their own affairs?
In 1972 the Aboriginal people in Australia gained the right to determine their own affairs.
23. When did the land rights movement start in Australia?
The land rights movement in Australia started at the beginning of the 1970s.
24. What is the significance of the Mabo Judgement?
The Mabo Judgement recognizes that Australia was not, in law, unoccupied at the time of European settlement.
25. What was the policy of assimilation?
The policy of assimilation involved an immediate attempt to strip immigrants of their cultures, social practices and languages. The migrant was to forget the “old country” and adopt the Anglo-Australian way of life.
26. What was the dominant aspect of Aboriginal culture?
The dominant aspect of Aboriginal culture was the balance between these people and their environment.
27. What are the main components of modern Australian culture?
The main components of modern Australian culture is a mixture of many traditions and influences which overlap: British, American, European and Asian.
28. What is the republic debate in Australia?
The republic debate in Australia is about whether Australia should remain a monarchy or become a republic.
29. What kind of republic do the minimalists propose?
The minimalists propose a republic with a president elected or appointed by parliament.
30. What are the views of the maximalists?
The maximalists want to go further than replacing the Queen with a president. They want to reform the Constitution so that a Bill of Rights could be written into it.
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