Chapter 1
2. The two large islands that make up the British Isles are ____.
A. Scotland and Ireland
B. Britain and Scotland
C. Great Britain and Northern Ireland
D. Great Britain and Ireland
3. The British Empire was replaced by the British Commonwealth or the
Commonwealth of Nations in ____.
A. 1921 B. 1931
C. 1945 D. 1950
4. The Commonwealth of Nations is an association of independent countries
____.
A. that were once colonies of Britain
B. that have a large number of British immigrants
C. that have close relations with Britain
D. that have fought on the side of Britain in the two world wars
2.D 3.B 4.A
Chapter 2
5. The Celts' religion was ____.
A. Buddhism B. Islam
C. Druidism D. Christianity
6. Which of the following tribes came to Britain first?
A. The Angles. B. The Saxons.
C. The Gaels. D. The Jutes.
7. ____ became the first real king of England, though he did not assume that
style.
A. Offa B. Egbert
C. Vortigern D. Hengist
8. ____ became the first Archbishop of Canterbury.
A. Columba B. Ethelbert
C. St. Augustine D. Egbert
9. The Vikings began to attack various parts of England from the end of the____century.
A. 7th B. 8th
C. 9th D.10th
10. Who were the ancestors of the English and the founders of England?
A. The Anglo-Saxons. B. The Normans.
C. The Vikings. D. The Romans
11. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Alfred the Great started the English navy.
B. Alfred the Great reorganized the Saxon any, making it more
efficient.
C. Alfred the Great established schools and formulated a legal System.
D. Alfred the Great impose a tax, called the Danegeld, on the Saxons.
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Canute was chosen by the Witan as king of England.
B. Canute was a warrior king and fought many battles against the
Normans.
C. Canute divided power between Danes and Saxons.
D. Canute forced Malcolm II, king of the Scots, to recognize him as
overlord.
13. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Edward the Confessor was more French than English.
B. Edward the Confessor filled his court with 'foreign' favorites.
C. Edward the Confessor was on very good terms with his father-in-law,
Earl Godwin.
D. Edward the Confessor appointed a Norman priest Archbishop of
Canterbury.
14. When Edward the Confessor died, ____was chosen by the Witan as king Of England.
A. the king of Norway
B. Harold Godwinson, Earl of Wessex
C. Edgar, Edward's nephew
D. Tostig, the deposed Earl of Northumbria
15. Tostig, Harold's brother, joined____, and made an attempt to recover his lost earldom of Northumbria.
A. Harold Hardrada, King of Norway
B. Edgar, Edward's nephew
C. Malcolm II, King of the Scots
D. Hardicanute
16. William, Duke of Normandy, fought King Harold of England at the Battle of Hastings in____.
A. 1086 B. 1066
C. 1035 D. 1381
17. William won the Battle of Hastings. Later, on____, he was crowned king of England.
A. Easter Day B. St. Andrew's Day
C. Christmas Day D. Boxing Day
18. William, Duke of Normandy, is now known as____.
A. William the Confessor B. William Lion-Heart
C. the father of the British navy D. William the Conqueror
19. Most of the land belonging to the Saxons was confiscated by William and given to____.
A. the Norman barons B. the Danes
C. the Irish D. the Scots
20. The Norman Conquest is perhaps ____event in English history.
A. a trifling B. the best-known
C. a horrifying D. a sensational
5. c 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B l0. A 11. D 12. B l3. C l4. B l5. A 16. B 17. C l8. D 19. A 20. B
chapter３
1. In the reign of William I, the ____were at the bottom of the feudal scale.
A. knights B. villeins
C. lesser nobles D. freemen
2. The Domesday Book was completed in____.
A. 1086 B. 1085
C. 1087 D. 1006
3. When William I died in Normandy in ____he left England to his second son William.
A. 1100 B. 1153
C. 1087 D. 1135
4. William II was known as William Rufus because of his____
A. independence B. efficiency
C. filial piety D. red complexion
5. ____ was the founder of the Plantagenet dynasty and ruled England for 35 years.
A. Henry I B. King Stephen
C. Henry II D. Count of Anjou
6. William Rufus (William II) was killed by an arrow when he was hunting
in____ in August l100.
A. the New Forest B. Pevensey
C. Winchester D. Gloucester
13. The Great Charter (or Magna Carta) was signed by King John at Runnymede
in____.
A. 1162 B. 1164
C. 1210 D. 1215
14. Simon de Montfort summoned in____ the Great Council to meet at
Westminster, together with two knights from each county and two citizens from each town.
A. 1242 B. 1258
C. 1265 D. 1266
15. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. In the 13th century a Black Rod went between the two Houses of
Parliament for liaison and to discipline the members.
B. In the 13th century Parliament only met by royal invitation.
C. In the 13th century Parliament's role was to offer advice, not to
make decisions.
D. In the 13th century the most important part of Parliament was the
House of Lords.
16. During the reign of ____, Wales was brought under English rule.
A. Henry III B. Edward I
C. Edward II D. Edward III
17. ____ became the first prince to hold the title of Prince of Wales, which continues to be borne by the eldest son of the reigning monarch.
A. Richard I B. Henry III
C. Edward II D. Edward III
1. B 2. A 3.C 4. D 5. C 6. A 13. D l4. C 15. A 16. B 17. C
Chapter4
1.The name of Wars of the Roses was, in fact, coined by the great 19th
century novelist ____.
A. Charles Dickens B. George Elliot
C. Sir Walter Scott D. Charlotte Bronte
2. Although the Wars of the Roses were fought intermittently for ____ years, ordinary people were little affected and went about their business as usual.
A. 20 B. 30
C. 40 D. 50
3. No less than____ nobles of royal blood were killed in the Wars of the
Roses.
A. 80 B. 90
C. 100 D. 110
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Henry VII refilled the royal treasury through loans, subsidies,
property levies and fines.
B. Henry VII forbade the nobles to keep excessive power.
C. Henry VII built up England's navy and foreign trade.
D. Henry VII completely neglected parliament as though it never
existed.
5. Henry VIII declared himself Supreme Head of the Church of England in ____.
A. 1529 B. 1534
C. 1535 D. 1547
6. Queen Mary burnt at stake some ____men and women who refused to change
back to the Catholic faith.
A. 300 B. 350
C. 400 D. 450
7. Mary died childless and her half-sister Elizabeth came to the throne as Elizabeth I in ____.
A. 1547 B. 1558
C. 1588 D. 1603
8. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Elizabeth I broke Mary's ties with Rome.
B. Elizabeth I restored her father's independent Church of England.
C. Elizabeth I's religious reform was a compromise of views.
D. Elizabeth I's religious settlement was acceptable to both extreme
Protestants and ardent Catholics.
9. The Renaissance began in northern Italy in the early ____century, and was typified by the universal genius of Leonardo Da Vinci.
A. 11th B. 12th
C. 13th D. 14th
10. The English Renaissance is said to have begun in ____.
A. 1422 B. 1478
C. 1485 D. 1495
15. The Great Civil War, as it became known, lasted from ____ until 1646.
A. 1639 B. 1640
C. 1641 D. 1642
16. When the First Civil War broke out ____men were at Charles I's command.
A. 1,000 B. 2,000
C. 3,000 D. 4,000
17. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Oliver Cromwell became Lord Protector of the Commonwealth of England in 1653 by the Petition of Right.
B. Oliver Cromwell crushed without mercy a rebellion in Ireland.
C. Oliver Cromwell suppressed the Levellers, a group within his own
army who advocated total religious and social equality.
D. Oliver Cromwell replaced the Rump with an assembly largely chosen by himself.
18. In 1660 the monarchy was restored and Charles I's son was brought back from ____, where he had fled for safety.
A. Flanders B. France
C. Holland D. Germany
19. After the Restoration, Parliament passed a series of severe laws called____against the Puritans, now known as Conformists.
A. Agreement of People B. The Petition of Right
C. The Clarendon Code D. The Act of Supremacy
20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The Bill of Rights excluded any Roman Catholics from the succession.
B. The Bill of Rights confirmed the principle of parliamentary
supremacy.
C. The Bill of Rights guaranteed free speech within both the House of Lords and the House of Commons.
D. The Bill of Rights requested that no taxes should be raised without
consent of Parliament.
1.C 2. B 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.D 10.C 15.D 16.A 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.D
Chapter5
1. Traditional farming involved the open field village, a system that dated back to the ____century.
A. 4th B. 5th
C. 6th D. 7th
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The open field system provided a good opportunity to experiment.
B. The open field system wasted land.
C. The open field system was wasteful of labor and time.
D. The open field system made livestock farming difficult.
3. Which of the following statements is NOT considered a characteristic of farming in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?
A. Use of artificial fertilizer.
B. Introduction of new agricultural machinery.
C. The 'Open-field' system.
D. A system of crop rotation.
4. Land enclosure was a disaster for the ____evicted from their land by the enclosures.
A. landlords B. tenants
C. farmers D. wage laborers
5. In Ireland and Scottish Highlands land enclosure led to mass emigration,
particularly to ____.
A. Africa B. Eastern Europe
C. Asia D. The New World
6. By the early 19th century, Britain had a road network of some ____miles.
A. 115,000 B. 120,000
C. 125,000 D. 130,000
7. In England no females were allowed to vote in national elections before
____.
A. 1918 B. 1920
C. 1928 D. 1945
8. In 1836 a group of ____and small shopkeepers formed the London Working
Men's Association.
A. householders B. tenants
C. skilled workers D. office workers
9. The six points of the People's Charter were achieved gradually over the period of ____, although the sixth has never been practical.
A. 1836-1848 B. 1842-1848
C. 1848-1908 D. 1858-1918
12. Thanks to the militant feminist movement of the ____led by Mrs. Pankhurst before the First World War, votes were granted to women over 30 in 1918.
A. Luddites B. Suffragettes
C. Chartists D. Levellers
13. The spark of the First World War was struck at Sarajevo on June 28, ____,when the Austrian Crown Prince Franz Ferdinand was assassinated by a Serbian nationalist.
A. 1913 B. 1914
C. 1915 D. 1916
14. As a result of the First World War settlement the ____was established in 1920.
A. League of Nations B. British Commonwealth
C. British East India Company D. United Nations
16. The Blitz radically changed the face of London for the first time since____nearly 3 centuries earlier.
A. the Black Death B. the Great Fire
C. the Civil War D. the Great Plague
17. The foundations of ____was laid in the late 1940s, providing free medical care for everyone and financial help for the old, the sick and the unemployed.
A. the welfare state
B. the National Health Service
C. the compulsory education
D. the Women's Liberation Movement
18. In the 1960s Pop music underwent a revolution when the Beatles became
world famous and turned their hometown of ____into a place of pilgrimage.
A. Manchester B. Blackpool
C. Liverpool D. Sheffield
19. The 1970s saw the growth of ___in Wales and Scotland.
A. liberalism B. Marxism
C. chauvinism D. nationalism
20. Margaret Thatcher believed in the following except____.
A. self-reliance
B. the strengthening of trade unions
C. privatization
D. the use of monetary policies to control inflation
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.C 7. A 8.C 9. D 12.B 13.B 14.A 16.B 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.B
Chapter9
6. The Church of England is not free to change its form of worship, as laid down in _____ without the consent of Parliament.
A. the Bill of Rights
B. the Provisions of Oxford
C. the Constitutions of Clarendon
D. the Book of Common Prayer
7. The position of the Church of Scotland was defined in the Treaty of Union, 1707, and further safeguarded by the Church of Scotland Act, ______.
A. 1921 B. 1922
C. 1923 D. 1924
8. The Salvation Army is served by 1,800 officers (ordained ministers) and runs more than _____ worship centers.
A. 500 B. 1,000
C. 1,500 D. 2,000
9. At Christmas, the home is decorated with the following except _____.
A. colorful paper chains B. leaves of holly and mistletoe
C. a young fir-tree D. firecrackers
10. Easter is traditionally associated with the following except ____.
A. the resurrection of Christ
B. the eating of Easter eggs
C. the custom of giving presents
D. the coming of spring
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C
Chapter10
1. There are some ____ universities, including the Open University in
Britain.
A. 70 B. 80
C. 90 D. 100
2. Some _____ per cent of secondary schools in England are grant-maintained (GM) self-governing schools.
A. 10 B. 15
C. 20 D. 25
3. The universities of Oxford and Cambridge date from the ____ centuries.
A. 12th and 13th B. 13th and 14th
C. 14th and 15th D. 15th and 16th
4. Over ____ science parks have been set up by higher education institutions in conjunction with industrial scientists and technologists.
A. 10 B. 20
C. 30 D. 40
5. With about _____ daily and Sunday newspapers published nationwide, the British public reads more newspapers than virtually any other country in the world.
A. 110 B. 120
C. 130 D. 140
6. The BBC World Service broadcasts international news worldwide, using
English and ____ other languages.
A. 37 B. 38
C. 39 D. 40
7. In summer there are open-air theatres, including one in London's Regent's Park, where ____ are performed, and the Minack Theatre, which is an open cliffside near Land's End in Cornwall.
A. William Shakespeare's plays
B. Christopher Marlowe's plays
C. Ben Johnson's plays
D. George Bernard Shaw's plays
8. Pantomime is a kind of play based on a traditional fairy tale and per-
formed ____.
A. at Easter B. on New Year's Day
C. on St. Patrick's Day D. at Christmas time
9. Edinburgh International Festival of Music and Drama takes place for a period of 3 to 4 weeks between ____ when Edinburgh becomes a center of cultural activity.
A. July and August B. August and September
C. September and October D. October and November
10. In ____ each year the National Film Theatre hosts the London Film Festival, at which some 250 new films from all over the world are screened.
A. September B. October
C. November D. December
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C
Chapter11
1. Ireland is called the Emerald Isle because of ______.
A. its shape
B. its connection with Britain
C. its abundant natural resources
D. its rich green countryside
2. Ireland is divided into two political parts: ______.
A. Northern Ireland and Southern Ireland
B. Southern Ireland and the Republic of Ireland
C. The Republic of Ireland and Northern Ireland
D. Northern Ireland and Britain
3. The largest river in Ireland is ______.
A. the Liffey River B. the Dodder River
C. the Shannon River D. the Lough Derg
4. The most significant feature of Irish landscape is ______, which provide
peat used for fuel.
A. bogs B. streams
C. islands D. cliffs
5. Which of the following is not true of Ireland's climate?
A. It is dry. B. It is moist.
C. It is mild. D. It is changeable.
6. Ireland has the following demographic features except ______.
A. it has a low birthrate
B. it has a late marriage age
C. it has an excess of females in the population
D. it has a high proportion of bachelors and spinsters of all ages
7. Ireland is unique among European countries for ______.
A. its small population
B. its beautiful scenery
C. its rich natural resources
D. its century-long population decline
8. The population decreased from the 1840s until about 1970, largely because
of ______.
A. a low birth rate B. a high death rate
C. a low employment rate D. a high emigration rate
9. The population of Ireland is predominantly of ______ origin.
A. English B. Celtic
C. Norman D. French
10. In Ireland today about ______ of the population are Roman Catholics.
A. 75% B. 80%
C. 90% D. 93%
11. When did the Anglo-Saxons invade Ireland?
A. In 432. B. In 1170.
C. In 1610. D. In 1641.
12. Who was the first English king to bring all Ireland under English
control?
A. Henry II. B. Henry III.
C. Henry VIII. D. James II.
13. Irish nationalism climaxed in ______.in which an Irish Republic was
proclaimed.
A. the massacre of Drogheda
B. the Easter Uprising of 1916
C. the battle of the Borne (1690)
D. the Chartist Movement
14. The creation of Northern Ireland dates from ______.when the Irish Free
State was set up.
A. 1916 B. 1921
C. 1937 D. 1949
15. On Easter Monday, April 18, 1949, Eire became the Republic of Ireland,
formally free of allegiance to the British crown and no longer a member
of ______.
A. the Commonwealth of Nations B. the United Nations
C. the NATO D. the EC
16. Since independence the Irish Republic has adhered to ______.
A. a policy of protectionism
B. a policy of containment
C. a policy of military alliance
D. a policy of neutrality and nonalignment
17. When did the Republic of Ireland join the EC?
A. In 1952. B. In 1955.
C. In 1973. D. In 1975.
18. When Albert Reynolds became Prime Minister in 1992, both Ireland and
Britain agreed to hold regular meetings .
A. to deal with the IRA
B. to make preparations for a united Ireland
C. to seek an end to the violence in Northern Ireland
D. to improve relations with each other
19. As a result of peace talks between Ireland and Britain a peace agreement
on Northern Ireland was signed in ______.
A. April 1997 B. May 1997
C. April 1998 D. May 1998
20. The peace agreement on Northern Ireland was approved by voters across
all of Ireland in a referendum held in ______.
A. April 1997 B. May 1997
C. April 1998 D. May 1998
1.D 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.B 10.D 11.B 12.C 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.D 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.D
Chapter14
1. The annual population growth rate of the 1990s was ______.
A. 1% B. 0.9%
C. over 1% D. under 1%
2. A major source of population growth is ________.
A. immigration B. baby boom
C. rising birth rate D. larger number of young people
3. The immigrants spread unevenly across the country, with ______having the largest percentage of immigrants.
A. Northeast B. the West
C. Midwest D. the South
4. ________was an important immigration spot in late 19th century and early 20th century.
A. Ellis Island B. San Francisco
C. Hawaii D. Miami
5. The three states that have seen the fastest growth in population in the past 20 years are ______.
A. California, Arizona and New Mexico
B. California, Florida and Nevada
C. New Mexico, Texas and Florida
D. Arizona, Nevada and Florida
6. One of the reasons for the growth of population in Florida is because of
its _________.
A. expanding economy
B. large number of Cuban-Americans
C. climate
D. exotic food
7. More than _____of the population in the United States lived in city areas
in 1988.
A. 60% B. 75%
C. 90% D. 50%
8. The population between the age of 25 and 44 increased by 28.1% from 1980
to 1989 because ___________.
A. this was the period of large inflow of young immigrants
B. this was the birth age of the baby boomers.
C. the large number born during WW II reached this age bracket
D. those who were born in the period of baby boom reached this age
bracket
9. Up to the end of WW II, there were ______waves of large-scale emigration
to the United States.
A. four B. two
C. three D. None of the above
10. Between 1845 and 1854, about 1.5 million Irishmen emigrated to United
States because of __________.
A. famine B. English oppression
C. war D. Both A & B
11. During the third wave of immigration from 1890 to 1910, many came from
____.
A. Britain and the Netherlands B. Austria-Hungary and Russia
C. Japan and China D. Mexico and Cuba
12. According to historians and specialists in demography, there are _____
great population movement(s) in the history of the United States.
A. four B. three
C. five D. None of the above
13. In the last great population movement, a large number of people moved to
______.
A. the Northwest B. the sunbelt areas
C. the South D. the Southwest
14. Between 1960 and 1990, a large number of people moved from_____.
A. core cities to the suburbs B. rural areas to cities
C. small cities to large cities D. None of the above
15. The current situation of African-Americans presents ________.
A. a favorable picture B. a negative picture
C. a mixed picture D. an encouraging picture
16. Although legal, official discrimination has been abolished _______.
A. discrimination in employment still exists
B. discrimination in university admission still exists
C. poverty rate of the blacks is the highest among all racial and
ethnic groups
D. inequality and subtle discrimination still exist
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.D 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.D
Chapter15
1. The result of the War with Mexico in 1846 was _______.
A. American annexation of California and New Mexico
B. the independence of California and New Mexico
C. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico for the annexation of
California and New Mexico
D. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico
2. During the drafting of the Declaration of Independence and the drafting
of the Constitution, the issue of Negro slavery was _____.
A. not raised
B. raised but voted down
C. bitterly debated
D. raised but because of strong southern opposition it was put aside
for greater objective
3. Slave labor was widespread in the south because______.
A. the cold weather in the north was not suitable for Negro slaves
B. Negro slaves could not cope with machines in factories in the north
C. Negro Slaves were best suited for the kind of plantation economy in
the south
D. the north world not allow slavery to spread into their states
4. In the early 1850s, with the westward movement, the slavery issue became a serious political issue endangering the unity of the country because
_____.
A. whether the future states formed as a result of the westward
movement should be free or slave world affect the balance of power
in the Senate
B. the south insisted that slavery should be allowed to spread into all
new territories.
C. the north refused to let slavery spread into new territories.
D. the north wanted to put and end to slavery
5. Why did President Lincoln issue the Emancipation Proclamation?
A. Because President Lincoln himself was an abolitionist.
B. Because he wanted to punish the slave-owners in those states which
broke away form the union.
C. Because he had no other alternative.
D. Because he realized that in order to win the war, he should make it
a just war against slavery so as to rally as many people as
possible under the banner of the Federal government.
6. President Lincoln was shot dead five days after________.
A. he made a speech at Gettysburg.
B. general Lee, commanding general of the Confederate army surrendered
his troops .
C. the adoption of the thirteenth Amendment.
D. a military victory of the Union force at Gettysburg.
7. The rapid development of American economy after the Civil War was due to
______.
A. the stable political environment and availability of capital
B. large pool or labor force because of free slaves, immigrants
C. scientific invention and government policy
D. All of the above
8. At the end of the 19th century. One of the strong trends in American
economy was ______.
A. the emergence of big trusts
B. the predominance of small factories
C. the frequent intervention in business by the government
D. the influence of foreign corporations
9. The place that Christopher Columbus landed was _______.
A. India
B. island in Asia
C. the current territory of the United States of America
D. islands in the now West Indies
10. The chief reason for early settlers to come to the New Continent was___.
A. to seek better opportunity
B. to escape religious persecution
C. to satisfy the urge for adventure
D. A and B
11. In American history, the Pilgrim fathers to those who came to Plymouth
on board of __________.
A. a French ship B. a British ship
C. Mayflower D. an Italian ship
12. One of the features of the early colonists which has strong influence on
the formation of American character is ___________.
A. religious intolerance B. respect for personal success
C. stress on community harmony D. None of the above
13. What were the causes of War of Independence?
A. The development of colonial economy led to demand for more power to determine their own business.
B. the cruel exploitation of the colonies by the British government.
C. The sale of in the colonies.
D. A and B.
14. The clash at Concord and Lexington was ________.
A. the beginning of the War or independence?
B. the beginning of the second Continental Conference
C. a minor clash between the British and the colonists with no
significance
D. None of the above
15. The significance of the War of Independence is that _________.
A. it paved the way for the development of capitalism in North America
B. it initiated a period of bourgeois revolution against feudal rule or colonial rule
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
16. The unusual feature of the Articles of Confederation was that______.
A. it provided for no king but a republic and was a written
constitution.
B. it decided that the United States of America was a republic with
central power in Congress, that most powers laid in hands of the
states and it was a written document
C. it was the first written constitution in the world and the emphasis
was on a strong central government
D. the written constitution did not provide for an executive branch
which could function as a government
17. The contradiction that arose at the Constitutional Conference of 1787
was contradiction between________.
A. big states and small states.
B. industrial-commercial interests and landed interests.
C. one house or two houses for Congress.
D. A and B
18. The Bill of Rights Amendments________.
A. dealt with procedural matters
B. included not only procedural guarantees but also guarantees of basic
rights for the individual
C. were adopted merely to satisfy those who opposed the Constitution
D. were reluctantly accepted by the Federalists
20. The implications of the "Manifest Destiny" are______.
A. the legitimacy of American territorial expansion and American
obligation of the Spread of American value and institution.
B. the legitimacy of the westward movement
C. the Americans were doing the Lord's work in spreading American
democracy to other places
D. None of the above
1.C 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.D 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.D 10.D 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.D 18.B 20.A
chapter 16
1. What was the main cause of the Second World War?
A. The main cause was big power struggle for control of the world.
B. It was the worldwide economic crisis.
C. It was the military expansion of Japan, and Germany.
D. Both B and C.
2. The consequence of the three neutrality acts of the United States was____.
A. to make the United States gain time to arm itself
B. to actually help the aggressors by making clear that the United
States would not intervene
C. to get the United States involved in the war
D. to prevent the United States form being dragged into the war
3. American war time objectives were ______.
A. the total defeat of Axis powers
B. the establishment of a postwar world order under American leadership
C. coordination of war efforts of the Soviet Union, Britain and the
United States
D. Both A and B
4. Overlord is a code name for ______.
A. American lend-lease assistance to the Soviet Union
B. the summit conference at Teheran
C. the allied landing at Normandy, France in 1944
D. the North African campaign
5. One of the important decisions at the Yalta Conference was ______.
A. the allied landing at Normandy
B. the setting-up of a world organization, the United Nations, to
manage peace and security after the war
C. coordinated efforts in war against Japan
D. None of the above
6. The most important features in the growth of American economy in the
early 20th century were ______.
A. the use of steam and electricity as chief energy, the development of
lare corporation and the development of railway
B. the development of large corporation, urbanization and the
employment in production of new technology
C. the appearance of airplane, the use of electricity on a large scale
and urbanization
D. the rapid development of industry, railway and large cities
7. The Progressive Movement was ______.
A. an organized campaign with definite goals
B. a movement aiming at exposing the dark sides of society
C. not an organized campaign with efforts to improve people's living
standard
D. a number of diverse efforts aiming at achieving political, social
and economic reforms
8. In the political area, the Progressive Movement wanted to ______.
A. improve the living conditions of urban poor
B. reform the national government
C. change election systems in city and state governments and check
corruption
D. check corruption in city and state governments
9. The Progressive Movement wanted to ______ in order to stop big business
control.
A. initiate strict government regulation
B. have the government to fix prices
C. break up all the big businesses
D. do away with rebates
12. The policy the United States actually pursued in the first two years of
WWI was ______.
A. impartial neutrality B. partial neutrality
C. firm support of the Allies D. Pro-Ally partial neutrality
13. The essence of the Paris Peace Conference was .
A. to bring peace to Europe
B. to carve up the colonies of the defeated countries and to get war
compensation for the victors
C. to settle the colonial problem of the Ottoman Empire
D. to put the Fourteen Points into Practice
14. typically represented the world pattern between the two world wars _____.
A. The Versailles Treaty System
B. The Versailles Treaty System and the Washington Treaty System
C. The collapse of the German, Austro-Hungary and the Ottoman colonial
systems
D. Both B and C
15. Sacco and Vanzetti were sentenced to death and executed because ______.
A. of their radical political views
B. they were guilty of killing two people
C. they were members of KKK
D. they stole $ 16,000
16. One of the serious weaknesses in American economy in the 1920s was _____.
A. uncontrolled speculation in the stock market
B. tariff protection
C. huge profits of big businesses
D. too much control over the banking system
17. The serious economic crisis in the late 1920s and 1930s first brought
about by ______.
A. bank failures B. serious unemployment
C. farm foreclosures D. the stock market crash
18. The Hoover Administration ______ to deal with the economic crisis.
A. took effective measures
B. did not take any measure
C. asked the private sector
D. refused to take strong government action
19. Most of the measures F.D. Roosevelt took in the first hundred days he
was in the White House were to ______.
A. stop bank failures
B. prevent radical actions in the United States
C. prevent the further worsening of the economic situation and lessen
the personal sufferings of the people
D. prevent further worsening of the unstable political situation
20. The purpose of the New Deal measures was to ______.
A. save American democracy and the capitalist system
B. check the worsening of the economic situation
C. help people tie over the difficulty
D. increase American export
1.A 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.A 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.A 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.A
chapter17
1. Conflicts arose between the United States and the Soviet Union because___.
A. their common enemies Nazi Germany and Japan were defeated
B. They had very different concepts of postwar world order
C. the United States wanted cooperation with the Soviet Union but the
Soviet Union refused.
D. the soviet Union wanted cooperation with the United States but the
Untied States refused
2. The idea of containment was first brought up by ______.
A. Harry Truman B. Franklin D. Roosevelt
C. Marshall D. George Kennan
3. The essence of the Truman Doctrine was ______.
A. to provide economic and military support for any country which was
fighting internal Communist rebels or external Communist pressure
B. to provide aid for Greece and Turkey which were fighting against
Communism
C. to provide economic aid to needy countries
D. to give moral support to the struggle of free people
4. As a result of American economic aid under the Marshall Plan, Western
Europe _____.
A. managed to tie over the difficult years in the late 1940s
B. succeeded in solving the food problem
C. recovered from war destruction and its economy began to develop
D. became prosperous
10. President Truman on March 21, 1947 issued an executive order, initiating
a comprehensive investigation of the loyalty of all federal employees.
This was the beginning of ______.
A. McCarthyism
B. Clearing out Soviet spies
C. widespread persecution of Communists and progressive people
D. persecution of federal employees
11. The trial of Alger Hiss proved ______.
A. that he was a Soviet spy
B. that he did not tell the truth in court
C. that he provided Soviet agent with secret information on atomic
weapon
D. None of the above
12. The Supreme Court played a role in whipping up the anticommunist hysteria
by ______.
A. upholding the constitutionality of the Smith Act
B. convicting 11 high-ranking Communist leaders
C. supporting the trial of Alger Hiss
D. supporting President Truman's executive order
14. The pillar industries for the postwar economic boom were ______.
A. information, space and biotechnology
B. textile, automobile and construction
C. defense, information and housing
D. automobile, housing and defense
16. When ______,this was the beginning of American involvement in Vietnam.
A. the United States decided to provide France with military aid in
their fight in Vietnam
B. the United States started to provide aid for the South Vietnamese
government after the Geneva Conference in 1854
C. the United States sent more and more military advisers to South
Vietnam
D. the United States began to Americanize the war in Vietnam
17. The Paris Agreement was signed by the U.S. and North Vietnam in Jan. 1973
and the fall of Saigon was in ______.
A. April, 1973 B. April, 1975
C. Jan, 1975 D. None of the above
18. The conditions the People's Republic of China set for the establishment
of diplomatic relations with the United States were ______.
A. the withdrawal of the 7th Fleet from the straits and the end of
diplomatic relations with Taiwan
B. the cancellation of the mutual defense treaty and the end of
diplomatic relations with Taiwan.
C. the stop of 7th Fleet patrol in Taiwan straits, the cancellation of
the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations with
Taiwan
D. the withdrawal of all military forces from Taiwan, the cancellation
of the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations
with Taiwan
19. New Frontier and War on Poverty were programs initiated by ______.
A. President Kennedy
B. President Johnson
C. Presidents Kennedy and Johnson respectively
D. Presidents Johnson and Kennedy respectively
I. B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.C 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.D 19.C 20.C
Chapter18
1. The United States ranks ______ in the world in the total value of its
economic production.
A. first B. second
C. third D. fourth
2. The following are the factors that have contributed to the development of
the U.S. economy except ______.
A. the vast space and resources of the land
B. the ideals of freedom and economic opportunity
C. English as its national language
D. hard work by the people
3. Which of the following is not true of the U.S. economy?
A. It is based largely on a free enterprise system.
B. There is little government involvement in the economy
C. It is one of the least regulated economies in the world.
D. Many of the nation's basic industries are represented by only a few
major corporations.
16. Which of the following is not true of U.S. foreign trade?
A. Canada and Japan are the country's chief trading partners.
B. The U.S. share of world trade has increased in recent years.
C. Since the mid-1960s, the value of imports has usually been much
higher than the value of exports.
D. Traditionally, the value of U.S. exports has exceeded, or been about
the same as, the value of U.S. imports.
17. What are the leading U.S. exports?
A. Mineral fuels.
B. Iron and steel.
C. Paper and newsprint.
D. Machinery and transportation equipment.
18. What are the leading U.S. imports?
A. Machinery and transportation equipment.
B. Scientific measuring equipment.
C. Textile fibers.
D. All of the above.
19. What are the problems the U.S. economy has faced fro time to time?
A. Recessions. B. Depressions.
C. Inflation. D. All of the above.
20. What percentage of the population is classified by the U.S. government as
poor?
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%.
1.A 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.D 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.D 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.D 20.C
Chapter19
1. The federal judicial system consists of ______.
A. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals and 91 district courts
B. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 89 district courts, 3
courts of special jurisdiction
C. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts, 3
courts of special jurisdiction
D. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts, 2
courts for the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto
Rico
2. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in ______.
A. all kinds of cases
B. two kinds of cases
C. cases involving foreign citizens
D. cases involving a state
3. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court _____.
A. has much greater power than other justices of the Supreme Court
B. has no greater voting power than other justices of the Supreme Court
C. has greater say in deciding a case
D. has greater voting power than other justices of the Supreme Court
4. Political parties are the basis of the American political system ______.
A. but there is no provision in the Constitution for political parties
B. and the Constitution has clear provision
C. but the founding fathers had strong apprehension of political
parties
D. Both A and C
5. There have been ______ periods in the development of American political
parties in the United States.
A. four B. three
C. five D. two
6. The first period if the party system refers to the appearance of ______.
A. the Federalists
B. the Anti-Federalists
C. the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists
D. the Democratic-Republicans and the Anti-Federalists
7. The Federalists advocated ______.
A. a strong federal governments
B. strong state government
C. the adoption of Bill of Rights
D. limits on the federal government
8. The Democratic Party led by Andrew Jackson represented the interests of
______.
A. northern industrialists B. southern slave owners
C. frontiersmen D. Both B and C
9. Abraham Lincoln was elected President as candidate of _____.
A. the Democratic Party B. the Republican Party
C. the Whig Party D. None of the above
10. From the 1860s to the 1920s, the Republican Party dominated the political
scene and from the 1930s to the 1970s,______ was in power most of the
time.
A. the Democratic Party B. the Republican Party
C. no party D. None of the above
11. The two major parties today have ______ difference in policy orientation.
A. no B. little
C. some D. great
12. In terms of organization, the two major parties ______.
A. have tight organizational structure
B. have strong leadership at the national level
C. are well organized at the grass roots level
D. are merely political forces coming together in a loose way
13. In the past few decades, the influence of political parties has been
declining ______.
A. so the political parties are no longer important
B. so an independent presidential candidate can win a national election
C. but without the backing of a political party, a presidential
candidate still cannot win
D. so the presidential election has become more unpredictable
14. In 1992 ______ ran for the President as an independent candidate.
A. Bill Clinton B. Ross Perot
C. Bob Dole D. George Bush
15. When the delegates met at Philadelphia in 1787, their task was ______.
A. to write a new constitution
B. to see what they can do about the Articles of Confederation
C. to design a new form of government
D. to revise the Articles of Confederation
16. The writers of the Constitution worked out the Constitution worked out
the checks and balances in order to ______.
A. prevent the government from misusing its power
B. prevent the government from being strong
C. pacify those who opposed the Constitution
D. meet the demands of small states.
20. The House Speaker and the temporary President of the Senate are usually
______.
A. elected by the majority party
B. chosen from the majority and minority parties
C. members of the majority party
D. chosen freely from the Congressmen and Senators
1.C 2.B 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.A 11.C 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.C
Chapter20
1. public and private colleges and universities and community colleges offer
______.
A. "continuing education" programs of associate degrees
B. graduate studies professional training
C. professional training
D. All of the above
2. There is ______ age limit for adult education.
A. no B. some
C. definite D. None of the above
3. The 1983 report "A Nation At Risk" cited as example of the decline of
educational standards ______.
A. high rates of adult illiteracy
B. declining SAT scores
C. low scores of American students in key subjects as compared with
scores of students of other countries
D. All of the above
4. The report listed as new basics ______.
A. English, mathematics, computer, social studies
B. science, mathematics, social studies, foreign language
C. English, science, social studies, mathematics, computer
D. English, science, computer, social studies
5. The two focuses of the education reforms in the mid-1980s were: ______.
A. the raising of the standards of teaching and the reform in
curriculum
B. the raising of the standards of teaching and learning and the
restructuring of the schools
C. the raising of the standards of teaching and the improvement of the
standards of learning
D. None of the above
6. One of the six goals set by President Bush in his " America 2000" Plan is
______.
A. elimination of drugs and violence from school
B. the increase of high-school graduation rate to 86%
C. competence in forging language, mathematics, science, history and
geography
D. the increase of adult literacy rate
7. Since 1991, the goals set in the plan ______.
A. have been largely achieved
B. have largely not been achieved
C. have been achieved in some significant areas
D. have not been achieved at all
8. To many Americans, education is important because ______.
A. it contributes to the success of individuals
B. it contributes to the strengthening of national strength
C. it prepares the young people for future development
D. Both A and B
9. Elementary and secondary education is ______.
A. free
B. compulsory
C. free and attendance is required by law
D. Both B and C
10. American schools are divided into ______.
A. public schools and private ones
B. Public schools, private schools and community schools
C. coeducation schools and single sex schools.
D. national schools and state-run schools
11. In the United States, educational policies are determined by ______.
A. the federal government B. female only institutions
C. single sex institutions D. coeducation institutions
12. In the United States, educational policies are determined by ______.
A. the federal government
B. the state and board of trustees in some states
C. local school district
D. board of trustees
13. The governing board of school district is responsible for ______.
A. the hiring of teachers and staff
B. the designing of a suitable curriculum
C. the compiling and approving of budget
D. All of the above
14. High schools are made up of ______ different types of schools with
somewhat different tasks.
A. four B. three
C. five D. None of the above
15. Higher education in the United States consists of ______ types of
institutions.
A. four B. five
C. six D. seven
16. The universities that offer doctoral degrees are ______.
A. research universities
B. doctoral universities
C. A and B and some specialized institutions
D. Both A and B
17. Board of trustees is composed chiefly of laymen because ______.
A. they are more likely to represent public interests
B. they have more commonsense and less professional bias
C. their interests are affected by board decisions
D. None of the above
18. There is ______ difference between tuition rates in public and private
institutions of higher learning.
A. no B. significant
C. some D. None of the above
19. In face of the rising cost for higher education, fields of graduate study
that are favored by students are those that ______.
A. offer greater professional satisfaction
B. make graduates more easily employed
C. offer easy enrollment
D. offer more rewarding jobs in terms of payment
20. Community college ______.
A. offers bachelor degrees B. offers associate degrees.
C. is a two-year college D. Both B and C
1.D 2.A 3.D 4.C 5. B 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.A 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.B 15.C 16.C 17.A 18.B 19.D 20.D
chapter 21
1. Poor Richard's Almanac contained ________ .
A. many proverbs B. Franklin's autobiography
C. voyages to the new land D. climates and crops
2. In the early 19th century, New York City was ________.
A. the capital of the United States
B. the center of Harlem Renaissance
C. the center of knickerbockers
D. None of the above
3. Washington Irving's most famous book The Sketch book contains _______ .
A. The Legend of Sleepy Hollow B. Rip Van Winkle
C. A History of New York D. Both A and B
4. Washington Irving fills the stories with the "local color" of ______ .
A. New York City
B. Hudson River valley near New York
C. New York state
D. New England
5. When Rip Van Winkle woke up and went back to his village, he found he had
slept in the hill for _______ .
A. 10 years B. 20 years
C. 50 years D. None of the above
6. Emerson _______ Transcendentalist.
A. called himself B. did not like the term
C. never called himself D. created the term
7. In the book "Nature", Emerson stated that ________ .
A. man's relationship with nature transcends the idea of usefulness
B. nature is useful to man
C. nature is independent of man and has nothing to do with man
D. nature can only be used by man
8. Nathaniel Hawthorne was one of those who ______ transcendentalism.
A. supported B. was indifferent to
C. attacked D. had nothing to do with
9. The book The Scarlet Letter ends with Dimmesdale _______ .
A. running away with Hester
B. killing himself out of guilt
C. overcoming his sense of guilt
D. making a public confession and falling dead in the arms of Hester
10. The locality in Mark Twain's works was usually somewhere along _______.
A. the Hudson River B. the Mississippi River
C. the Missouri River D. the transcontinental railway
11. In Leaves of Grass Walt Whitman sang praise of _______ .
A. equality
B. equality, democracy and the common people
C. democracy
D. democracy and the common people
12. Most of the poems written by Emily Dickinson were _______ .
A. lost B. published during her lifetime
C. buried with her D. published after her death
13. The two great themes of Dickinson's poetry were _______.
A. death and search for faith B. the grave and the soul
C. the grave and faith D. death and the soul
14. The novel Sister Carrie describes ________ .
A. the death of Hurstwood
B. the degeneration of Carrie Meeber
C. how Carrie climbed up the social ladder
D. Carrie's love affair with Drouet
15. T. S. Eliot's The Waste Land is important because it ______ .
A. deals with the cultural glories of the past
B. praises the lost generation
C. is highly traditional
D. reveals the spiritual crisis of post-WWI Europe and it is original
in form
16. The "Lost Generation" refers to those who _______ .
A. have no ambition in life
B. are physically and spiritually impotent
C. are homeless
D. are expatriates
17. In the Old Man and the Sea, Hemingway praises the old fisherman's ______.
A. courage to face the risks of the high seas
B. courage to fight the sharks
C. courage to accept defeat of not catching anything forh 84 days
D. attitude towards defeat and failure
18. Langston Hughes was noted for his _______ .
A. true description of urban Blacks in poetry
B. unconventional portrayal of Harlem
C. singing of black America
D. None of the above
19. In the Native Son, Richard Wright makes readers see that _____ .
A. the Blacks are alienated
B. the social situation of Bigger Thomas' tragedy
C. the Blacks are bitter
D. the life of the Blacks is miserable
1.A 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.D 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.A 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.B 20 C
Chapter23
1. Canada is located in ________.
A. the Southern Hemisphere B. The Northern Hemisphere
C. the Western Hemisphere D. The Eastern Hemisphere
2. Canada is bounded on the east by ________.
A. the Pacific Ocean B. the Atlantic Ocean
C. the Indian Ocean D. the Arctic Ocean
3. Nearly ________of the land in Canada has no permanent population.
A. half B. two-thirds
C. 89% D. 95%
4. Canada's largest city is _________.
A. Montreal B. Toronto
C. Ottawa D. Vancouver
5. The longest river in Canada is _________.
A. the Mackenzie B. the St. Lawrence
C. the Severn D. the Yukon
6. The St. Lawrence and ________together form an important transportation
network for eastern Canada.
A. the Mackenzie
Ｂ．Ｇreat lakes
C the Yukon
D.Hudson bay
7. The Interior Plains lie between________ and _______ .
A. the Canadian Shield/the Appalachian Region
B. the Canadian Shield/the Rocky Mountains
C. the Great Lakes/the Arctic Islands
D. the Appalachian Region/the Great Lakes
8. The name "Canada" is thought to be derived from kanata, an Indian word
meaning _______.
A. a guitar B. a meeting place
C. a settlement D. a piece of land
9. Who was the first European to discover Canada?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
10. Who founded the first permanent settlements at Quebec and Montreal on the
St. Lawrence River?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
11. Why were the French troops in Canada defeated by the British during the
Seven Years' War?
A. Because they were not used to the weather in Canada.
B. Because they did not get support from the local people.
C. Because they did not receive the supplies they needed so badly.
D. Because the British had larger and better settlements in Canada.
12. Under______ , the French Canadian farming economy of the St. Lawrence
valley and its language, religion, and customs continued unchanged.
A. the Quebec Act of 1774
B. the Treaty of Paris in 1763
C. the Constitutional Act of 1791
D. the Act of Union in 1840
13. When was Canada divided into Upper Canada (English-speaking)and Lower
Canada (French-speaking)?
A. In 1763 B. In 1774
C. In 1791 D. In 1840
14. When was Canada given internal self-government?
A. In 1791 B. In 1840
C. In 1848 D. In 1867
15. Under ________ , the provinces of Canada, New Brunswick, and Nova Scotia
were united to form the Do-minion of Canada.
A. the Act of Union in 1840
B. the British North America Act of 1867
C. the Quebec Act of 1774
D. the Constitutional Act of 1791
16. Who was the first prime minister of the new Canada?
A. Sir John Macdonald. B. Sir Wilfrid Laurier.
C. Robert Borden. D. Mackenzie King.
17. In 1896 _______ took over and the country was ruled under Sir Wilfrid
Laurier.
A. the Conservative Party B. the Liberal Party
C. the Labor Party D. the New Democratic Party
18. In 1905 two more provinces were created. They were_______ .
A. Ontario and Quebec
B. Manitoba and British Columbia
C. Alberta and Saskatchewan
D. Newfoundland and Prince Edward Island
19. In 1931 by_______ Canada was formally declared to be a sovereign nation
and became a member of the Common-wealth of Nations.
A. the Peace Treaty of 1919 B. the Statute of Westminster
C. the Meek Lake Accord D. the constitution Act of 1982
20. In 1949 _______ became Canada's tenth province.
A. Newfoundland B. Prince Edward Island
C. Labrador D. British Columbia
1.C 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.b 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.A
Chapter27
1. Like the island continent of Antarctica, Australia is located entirely in
______.
A. the Northern Hemisphere B. the Southern Hemisphere
C. the North Pole D. the South Pole
2. With regard to its size, Australia is ______ country in the world.
A. the third largest B. the fourth largest
C. the fifth largest D. the sixth largest
3. The geographical structure of Australia is generally divided into three
topographical regions: ______.
A. the Eastern Plateau, the Central highlands and the Western Lowlands
B. the Central Plateau, the Western Highlands and the Eastern Lowlands
C. the Western Plateau, the Eastern highlands and the Central Eastern
Lowlands
D. the Central Plateau, the Western highlands and the Eastern Lowlands
4. Although Australia has a large area, ______ of the continent is desert or
semi-desert.
A. one third B. two thirds
C. half D. more than half
5. Most Australians live on the cool, wet, forested ______.
A. southeast coastland B. southwest coastland
C. northeast coastland D. northwest coastland
6. The only places in Australia that experience regular winter snowfall and
icy conditions are ______.
A. the eastern coastal areas of Queensland
B. the Blue Mountains
C. the New England Tableland
D. the highest peaks of the Snowy Mountains and Victorian Highlands
9. Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people constitute ______of
Australia's population.
A. 1% B. 1.5%
C. 2% D. 2.5%
10. Why has Australia always been a continent with few people?
A. Because Australia is too far away from Europe.
B. Because Australia is the least mountainous and most level of the
world's continents.
C. Because Australia is separated from the rest of the world by seas.
D. Because most of the continent is hot and dry.
11. Australia is politically divided into _____ states and _____ territories.
A. four/three B. five/two
C. six/three D. six/two
12. Australia is a nation of immigrants because the overwhelming majority of
the Australian population are ______.
A. white
B. middle class people
C. tourists from other countries
D. immigrants or their descendants
13. Why is Australia's New South Wales called the premier state?
A. Because it was the first colony established by Britain in 1788.
B. Because it is the biggest state in Australia.
C. Because it is the most important state in Australia.
D. Because it has the largest population in Australia.
14. The only city on the western coast which has a population of more than
one million is ______.
A. Darwin B. Perth
C. the Gold Coast D. Brisbane
15. The Great Barrier Reef is included on the World Heritage list because___.
A. it has the most beautiful seascape in the world
B. it has the greatest number of islands in the world
C. it has the most diverse and complex marine life in the world
D. it has the longest coast in the world
16. Adelaide, the capital of South Australia, is internationally known for
its ______.
A. wine B. beautiful scenery
C. valuable minerals D. arts festival
17. Western Australia is the biggest Australian state, but its population is
only ______ of the country's population.
A. 9% B. 10%
C. 11% D. 12%
18. Tasmania is an island which lies ______ of the Australian mainland.
A. north of the northeastern corner
B. south of the southeastern corner
C. east of the northeastern comer
D. west of the southeastern corner
19. Why is the southern area of the Northern Territory called the Red Centre
of Australia?
A. Because Uluru is located there.
B. Because it is extremely hot and dry.
C. Because it consists of miles and miles of red-sand desert and
mountain ranges.
D. Because it lies in the tropics.
20. Canberra, the capital of Australia, got its name from the word
"Canburry",which is an Aboriginal word meaning ______.
A. "meeting place" B. "beautiful garden"
C. "sacred site" D. "capital city"
1.B 2.D 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.D 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.D 11.D 12.D 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.A
chapter33
1. New Zealand is situated about 1, 500 km _______.
A. north-west of Australia B. south-east of Australia
C. north-east of Australia D. south-west of Australia
2. Because the country is very narrow, no place in New Zealand is more than
______ from the sea.
A. 100 km B. 110 km
C. 120 km D. 150 km
3. New Zealand is the first country in the world to get the new day because
_______ .
A. it is just east of the International Date Line
B. it is just west of the International Date Line
C. it is located halfway between the equator and the South Pole
D. it is located in the Southern Pacific Ocean
4. A fault line runs the length of New Zealand, which means that _______.
A. it often has storms B. it often has volcanoes
C. it often has earthquakes D. it often has droughts
5. The Southern Alps, with Mt Cook in the center, runs almost the whole
length of ______ .
A. New Zealand B. North Island
C. South Island D. Stewart Island
6. The longest river in New Zealand is ________ .
A. the Clutha River B. the Wanganui
C. the Rangitata D. the Waikato
7. The following are the volcanic mountains in North Island except ________ .
A. Ruapehu B. Mt Cook
C. Ngaurohoe D. Tongariro
8. The most serious potential natural disasters in New Zealand are _______ .
A. storms and earthquakes B. volcanoes and floods
C. earthquakes and volcanoes D. floods and storms
9. Except in the west of the Southern Alps, the climate in New Zealand is
generally _______ .
A. cold
B. hot
C. neither very hot nor very cold
D. dry
10. _______ is the flightless bird which has become a symbol of New Zealand.
A. Emu B. Kiwi
C. Weka D. Pukeko
11. The first European to visit New Zealand was _______ .
A. Kupe B. Abel Tasman
C. William Hobson D.James Cook
12. Why was the British government interested in New Zealand?
A. Trade with New Zealand was economically important.
B. There were no laws to protect Maori rights in dealings with white
settlers.
C. The French government was taking an interest in New Zealand, too.
D. All of the above.
13. Modern New Zealand was founded on the basis of _____ signed between
Maoris and British settlers in 1840.
A. Maoritanga B. Aotearoa
C. the Treaty of Waitangi D. the Treaty of ANZUS
14. ________ is the Maori name for New Zealand, meaning land of the long,
white cloud'.
A. Waitangi B. Kiwi
C. Aotearoa D. Maoritanga
15. The Maori believe that their ancestors, and all living things in the
world, were descended from _______ .
A. the sky B. the land
C. the God D. the gods
16. According to Maori oral history, New Zealand was discovered by _______.
A. Abel Tasman B. James Cook
C. Kupe D. Maui
17. In 1893 New Zealand became the first country in the world _______ .
A. to recognize Maori rights of self-determination
B. go give women the vote
C. to introduce procedures for handling industrial disputes
D. to adopt the 40-hour working week
18. In 1891-1911 (under the Liberal-Labor Party) and 1935-1947 (under Labor)
New Zealand won a world reputation of _______.
A. its social experimentation
B. its high standard of living
C. its economic achievements
D. its independent foreign policy
19. Which of the following is not true about the Maori protest movement?
A. It is popular with younger urban Maoris.
B. It aims to gain recognition for their language, values and culture
in national life.
C. It demands compensation for their language, values and culture in
national life.
D. The New Zealand government has never paid any attention to the
movement.
20. Maoris have adopted many aspects of ______ and more and more New
Zealanders now share in the rich heritage of _______.
A. American culture/Asian culture
B. Western culture/Asian culture
C. American culture/Maori culture
D. Western culture/Maori culture
1. B 2. B 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.D 20.D
2. The two large islands that make up the British Isles are ____.
A. Scotland and Ireland
B. Britain and Scotland
C. Great Britain and Northern Ireland
D. Great Britain and Ireland
3. The British Empire was replaced by the British Commonwealth or the
Commonwealth of Nations in ____.
A. 1921 B. 1931
C. 1945 D. 1950
4. The Commonwealth of Nations is an association of independent countries
____.
A. that were once colonies of Britain
B. that have a large number of British immigrants
C. that have close relations with Britain
D. that have fought on the side of Britain in the two world wars
2.D 3.B 4.A
Chapter 2
5. The Celts' religion was ____.
A. Buddhism B. Islam
C. Druidism D. Christianity
6. Which of the following tribes came to Britain first?
A. The Angles. B. The Saxons.
C. The Gaels. D. The Jutes.
7. ____ became the first real king of England, though he did not assume that
style.
A. Offa B. Egbert
C. Vortigern D. Hengist
8. ____ became the first Archbishop of Canterbury.
A. Columba B. Ethelbert
C. St. Augustine D. Egbert
9. The Vikings began to attack various parts of England from the end of the____century.
A. 7th B. 8th
C. 9th D.10th
10. Who were the ancestors of the English and the founders of England?
A. The Anglo-Saxons. B. The Normans.
C. The Vikings. D. The Romans
11. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Alfred the Great started the English navy.
B. Alfred the Great reorganized the Saxon any, making it more
efficient.
C. Alfred the Great established schools and formulated a legal System.
D. Alfred the Great impose a tax, called the Danegeld, on the Saxons.
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Canute was chosen by the Witan as king of England.
B. Canute was a warrior king and fought many battles against the
Normans.
C. Canute divided power between Danes and Saxons.
D. Canute forced Malcolm II, king of the Scots, to recognize him as
overlord.
13. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Edward the Confessor was more French than English.
B. Edward the Confessor filled his court with 'foreign' favorites.
C. Edward the Confessor was on very good terms with his father-in-law,
Earl Godwin.
D. Edward the Confessor appointed a Norman priest Archbishop of
Canterbury.
14. When Edward the Confessor died, ____was chosen by the Witan as king Of England.
A. the king of Norway
B. Harold Godwinson, Earl of Wessex
C. Edgar, Edward's nephew
D. Tostig, the deposed Earl of Northumbria
15. Tostig, Harold's brother, joined____, and made an attempt to recover his lost earldom of Northumbria.
A. Harold Hardrada, King of Norway
B. Edgar, Edward's nephew
C. Malcolm II, King of the Scots
D. Hardicanute
16. William, Duke of Normandy, fought King Harold of England at the Battle of Hastings in____.
A. 1086 B. 1066
C. 1035 D. 1381
17. William won the Battle of Hastings. Later, on____, he was crowned king of England.
A. Easter Day B. St. Andrew's Day
C. Christmas Day D. Boxing Day
18. William, Duke of Normandy, is now known as____.
A. William the Confessor B. William Lion-Heart
C. the father of the British navy D. William the Conqueror
19. Most of the land belonging to the Saxons was confiscated by William and given to____.
A. the Norman barons B. the Danes
C. the Irish D. the Scots
20. The Norman Conquest is perhaps ____event in English history.
A. a trifling B. the best-known
C. a horrifying D. a sensational
5. c 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B l0. A 11. D 12. B l3. C l4. B l5. A 16. B 17. C l8. D 19. A 20. B
chapter３
1. In the reign of William I, the ____were at the bottom of the feudal scale.
A. knights B. villeins
C. lesser nobles D. freemen
2. The Domesday Book was completed in____.
A. 1086 B. 1085
C. 1087 D. 1006
3. When William I died in Normandy in ____he left England to his second son William.
A. 1100 B. 1153
C. 1087 D. 1135
4. William II was known as William Rufus because of his____
A. independence B. efficiency
C. filial piety D. red complexion
5. ____ was the founder of the Plantagenet dynasty and ruled England for 35 years.
A. Henry I B. King Stephen
C. Henry II D. Count of Anjou
6. William Rufus (William II) was killed by an arrow when he was hunting
in____ in August l100.
A. the New Forest B. Pevensey
C. Winchester D. Gloucester
13. The Great Charter (or Magna Carta) was signed by King John at Runnymede
in____.
A. 1162 B. 1164
C. 1210 D. 1215
14. Simon de Montfort summoned in____ the Great Council to meet at
Westminster, together with two knights from each county and two citizens from each town.
A. 1242 B. 1258
C. 1265 D. 1266
15. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. In the 13th century a Black Rod went between the two Houses of
Parliament for liaison and to discipline the members.
B. In the 13th century Parliament only met by royal invitation.
C. In the 13th century Parliament's role was to offer advice, not to
make decisions.
D. In the 13th century the most important part of Parliament was the
House of Lords.
16. During the reign of ____, Wales was brought under English rule.
A. Henry III B. Edward I
C. Edward II D. Edward III
17. ____ became the first prince to hold the title of Prince of Wales, which continues to be borne by the eldest son of the reigning monarch.
A. Richard I B. Henry III
C. Edward II D. Edward III
1. B 2. A 3.C 4. D 5. C 6. A 13. D l4. C 15. A 16. B 17. C
Chapter4
1.The name of Wars of the Roses was, in fact, coined by the great 19th
century novelist ____.
A. Charles Dickens B. George Elliot
C. Sir Walter Scott D. Charlotte Bronte
2. Although the Wars of the Roses were fought intermittently for ____ years, ordinary people were little affected and went about their business as usual.
A. 20 B. 30
C. 40 D. 50
3. No less than____ nobles of royal blood were killed in the Wars of the
Roses.
A. 80 B. 90
C. 100 D. 110
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Henry VII refilled the royal treasury through loans, subsidies,
property levies and fines.
B. Henry VII forbade the nobles to keep excessive power.
C. Henry VII built up England's navy and foreign trade.
D. Henry VII completely neglected parliament as though it never
existed.
5. Henry VIII declared himself Supreme Head of the Church of England in ____.
A. 1529 B. 1534
C. 1535 D. 1547
6. Queen Mary burnt at stake some ____men and women who refused to change
back to the Catholic faith.
A. 300 B. 350
C. 400 D. 450
7. Mary died childless and her half-sister Elizabeth came to the throne as Elizabeth I in ____.
A. 1547 B. 1558
C. 1588 D. 1603
8. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Elizabeth I broke Mary's ties with Rome.
B. Elizabeth I restored her father's independent Church of England.
C. Elizabeth I's religious reform was a compromise of views.
D. Elizabeth I's religious settlement was acceptable to both extreme
Protestants and ardent Catholics.
9. The Renaissance began in northern Italy in the early ____century, and was typified by the universal genius of Leonardo Da Vinci.
A. 11th B. 12th
C. 13th D. 14th
10. The English Renaissance is said to have begun in ____.
A. 1422 B. 1478
C. 1485 D. 1495
15. The Great Civil War, as it became known, lasted from ____ until 1646.
A. 1639 B. 1640
C. 1641 D. 1642
16. When the First Civil War broke out ____men were at Charles I's command.
A. 1,000 B. 2,000
C. 3,000 D. 4,000
17. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Oliver Cromwell became Lord Protector of the Commonwealth of England in 1653 by the Petition of Right.
B. Oliver Cromwell crushed without mercy a rebellion in Ireland.
C. Oliver Cromwell suppressed the Levellers, a group within his own
army who advocated total religious and social equality.
D. Oliver Cromwell replaced the Rump with an assembly largely chosen by himself.
18. In 1660 the monarchy was restored and Charles I's son was brought back from ____, where he had fled for safety.
A. Flanders B. France
C. Holland D. Germany
19. After the Restoration, Parliament passed a series of severe laws called____against the Puritans, now known as Conformists.
A. Agreement of People B. The Petition of Right
C. The Clarendon Code D. The Act of Supremacy
20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The Bill of Rights excluded any Roman Catholics from the succession.
B. The Bill of Rights confirmed the principle of parliamentary
supremacy.
C. The Bill of Rights guaranteed free speech within both the House of Lords and the House of Commons.
D. The Bill of Rights requested that no taxes should be raised without
consent of Parliament.
1.C 2. B 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.D 10.C 15.D 16.A 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.D
Chapter5
1. Traditional farming involved the open field village, a system that dated back to the ____century.
A. 4th B. 5th
C. 6th D. 7th
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The open field system provided a good opportunity to experiment.
B. The open field system wasted land.
C. The open field system was wasteful of labor and time.
D. The open field system made livestock farming difficult.
3. Which of the following statements is NOT considered a characteristic of farming in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?
A. Use of artificial fertilizer.
B. Introduction of new agricultural machinery.
C. The 'Open-field' system.
D. A system of crop rotation.
4. Land enclosure was a disaster for the ____evicted from their land by the enclosures.
A. landlords B. tenants
C. farmers D. wage laborers
5. In Ireland and Scottish Highlands land enclosure led to mass emigration,
particularly to ____.
A. Africa B. Eastern Europe
C. Asia D. The New World
6. By the early 19th century, Britain had a road network of some ____miles.
A. 115,000 B. 120,000
C. 125,000 D. 130,000
7. In England no females were allowed to vote in national elections before
____.
A. 1918 B. 1920
C. 1928 D. 1945
8. In 1836 a group of ____and small shopkeepers formed the London Working
Men's Association.
A. householders B. tenants
C. skilled workers D. office workers
9. The six points of the People's Charter were achieved gradually over the period of ____, although the sixth has never been practical.
A. 1836-1848 B. 1842-1848
C. 1848-1908 D. 1858-1918
12. Thanks to the militant feminist movement of the ____led by Mrs. Pankhurst before the First World War, votes were granted to women over 30 in 1918.
A. Luddites B. Suffragettes
C. Chartists D. Levellers
13. The spark of the First World War was struck at Sarajevo on June 28, ____,when the Austrian Crown Prince Franz Ferdinand was assassinated by a Serbian nationalist.
A. 1913 B. 1914
C. 1915 D. 1916
14. As a result of the First World War settlement the ____was established in 1920.
A. League of Nations B. British Commonwealth
C. British East India Company D. United Nations
16. The Blitz radically changed the face of London for the first time since____nearly 3 centuries earlier.
A. the Black Death B. the Great Fire
C. the Civil War D. the Great Plague
17. The foundations of ____was laid in the late 1940s, providing free medical care for everyone and financial help for the old, the sick and the unemployed.
A. the welfare state
B. the National Health Service
C. the compulsory education
D. the Women's Liberation Movement
18. In the 1960s Pop music underwent a revolution when the Beatles became
world famous and turned their hometown of ____into a place of pilgrimage.
A. Manchester B. Blackpool
C. Liverpool D. Sheffield
19. The 1970s saw the growth of ___in Wales and Scotland.
A. liberalism B. Marxism
C. chauvinism D. nationalism
20. Margaret Thatcher believed in the following except____.
A. self-reliance
B. the strengthening of trade unions
C. privatization
D. the use of monetary policies to control inflation
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.C 7. A 8.C 9. D 12.B 13.B 14.A 16.B 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.B
Chapter9
6. The Church of England is not free to change its form of worship, as laid down in _____ without the consent of Parliament.
A. the Bill of Rights
B. the Provisions of Oxford
C. the Constitutions of Clarendon
D. the Book of Common Prayer
7. The position of the Church of Scotland was defined in the Treaty of Union, 1707, and further safeguarded by the Church of Scotland Act, ______.
A. 1921 B. 1922
C. 1923 D. 1924
8. The Salvation Army is served by 1,800 officers (ordained ministers) and runs more than _____ worship centers.
A. 500 B. 1,000
C. 1,500 D. 2,000
9. At Christmas, the home is decorated with the following except _____.
A. colorful paper chains B. leaves of holly and mistletoe
C. a young fir-tree D. firecrackers
10. Easter is traditionally associated with the following except ____.
A. the resurrection of Christ
B. the eating of Easter eggs
C. the custom of giving presents
D. the coming of spring
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C
Chapter10
1. There are some ____ universities, including the Open University in
Britain.
A. 70 B. 80
C. 90 D. 100
2. Some _____ per cent of secondary schools in England are grant-maintained (GM) self-governing schools.
A. 10 B. 15
C. 20 D. 25
3. The universities of Oxford and Cambridge date from the ____ centuries.
A. 12th and 13th B. 13th and 14th
C. 14th and 15th D. 15th and 16th
4. Over ____ science parks have been set up by higher education institutions in conjunction with industrial scientists and technologists.
A. 10 B. 20
C. 30 D. 40
5. With about _____ daily and Sunday newspapers published nationwide, the British public reads more newspapers than virtually any other country in the world.
A. 110 B. 120
C. 130 D. 140
6. The BBC World Service broadcasts international news worldwide, using
English and ____ other languages.
A. 37 B. 38
C. 39 D. 40
7. In summer there are open-air theatres, including one in London's Regent's Park, where ____ are performed, and the Minack Theatre, which is an open cliffside near Land's End in Cornwall.
A. William Shakespeare's plays
B. Christopher Marlowe's plays
C. Ben Johnson's plays
D. George Bernard Shaw's plays
8. Pantomime is a kind of play based on a traditional fairy tale and per-
formed ____.
A. at Easter B. on New Year's Day
C. on St. Patrick's Day D. at Christmas time
9. Edinburgh International Festival of Music and Drama takes place for a period of 3 to 4 weeks between ____ when Edinburgh becomes a center of cultural activity.
A. July and August B. August and September
C. September and October D. October and November
10. In ____ each year the National Film Theatre hosts the London Film Festival, at which some 250 new films from all over the world are screened.
A. September B. October
C. November D. December
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C
Chapter11
1. Ireland is called the Emerald Isle because of ______.
A. its shape
B. its connection with Britain
C. its abundant natural resources
D. its rich green countryside
2. Ireland is divided into two political parts: ______.
A. Northern Ireland and Southern Ireland
B. Southern Ireland and the Republic of Ireland
C. The Republic of Ireland and Northern Ireland
D. Northern Ireland and Britain
3. The largest river in Ireland is ______.
A. the Liffey River B. the Dodder River
C. the Shannon River D. the Lough Derg
4. The most significant feature of Irish landscape is ______, which provide
peat used for fuel.
A. bogs B. streams
C. islands D. cliffs
5. Which of the following is not true of Ireland's climate?
A. It is dry. B. It is moist.
C. It is mild. D. It is changeable.
6. Ireland has the following demographic features except ______.
A. it has a low birthrate
B. it has a late marriage age
C. it has an excess of females in the population
D. it has a high proportion of bachelors and spinsters of all ages
7. Ireland is unique among European countries for ______.
A. its small population
B. its beautiful scenery
C. its rich natural resources
D. its century-long population decline
8. The population decreased from the 1840s until about 1970, largely because
of ______.
A. a low birth rate B. a high death rate
C. a low employment rate D. a high emigration rate
9. The population of Ireland is predominantly of ______ origin.
A. English B. Celtic
C. Norman D. French
10. In Ireland today about ______ of the population are Roman Catholics.
A. 75% B. 80%
C. 90% D. 93%
11. When did the Anglo-Saxons invade Ireland?
A. In 432. B. In 1170.
C. In 1610. D. In 1641.
12. Who was the first English king to bring all Ireland under English
control?
A. Henry II. B. Henry III.
C. Henry VIII. D. James II.
13. Irish nationalism climaxed in ______.in which an Irish Republic was
proclaimed.
A. the massacre of Drogheda
B. the Easter Uprising of 1916
C. the battle of the Borne (1690)
D. the Chartist Movement
14. The creation of Northern Ireland dates from ______.when the Irish Free
State was set up.
A. 1916 B. 1921
C. 1937 D. 1949
15. On Easter Monday, April 18, 1949, Eire became the Republic of Ireland,
formally free of allegiance to the British crown and no longer a member
of ______.
A. the Commonwealth of Nations B. the United Nations
C. the NATO D. the EC
16. Since independence the Irish Republic has adhered to ______.
A. a policy of protectionism
B. a policy of containment
C. a policy of military alliance
D. a policy of neutrality and nonalignment
17. When did the Republic of Ireland join the EC?
A. In 1952. B. In 1955.
C. In 1973. D. In 1975.
18. When Albert Reynolds became Prime Minister in 1992, both Ireland and
Britain agreed to hold regular meetings .
A. to deal with the IRA
B. to make preparations for a united Ireland
C. to seek an end to the violence in Northern Ireland
D. to improve relations with each other
19. As a result of peace talks between Ireland and Britain a peace agreement
on Northern Ireland was signed in ______.
A. April 1997 B. May 1997
C. April 1998 D. May 1998
20. The peace agreement on Northern Ireland was approved by voters across
all of Ireland in a referendum held in ______.
A. April 1997 B. May 1997
C. April 1998 D. May 1998
1.D 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.B 10.D 11.B 12.C 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.D 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.D
Chapter14
1. The annual population growth rate of the 1990s was ______.
A. 1% B. 0.9%
C. over 1% D. under 1%
2. A major source of population growth is ________.
A. immigration B. baby boom
C. rising birth rate D. larger number of young people
3. The immigrants spread unevenly across the country, with ______having the largest percentage of immigrants.
A. Northeast B. the West
C. Midwest D. the South
4. ________was an important immigration spot in late 19th century and early 20th century.
A. Ellis Island B. San Francisco
C. Hawaii D. Miami
5. The three states that have seen the fastest growth in population in the past 20 years are ______.
A. California, Arizona and New Mexico
B. California, Florida and Nevada
C. New Mexico, Texas and Florida
D. Arizona, Nevada and Florida
6. One of the reasons for the growth of population in Florida is because of
its _________.
A. expanding economy
B. large number of Cuban-Americans
C. climate
D. exotic food
7. More than _____of the population in the United States lived in city areas
in 1988.
A. 60% B. 75%
C. 90% D. 50%
8. The population between the age of 25 and 44 increased by 28.1% from 1980
to 1989 because ___________.
A. this was the period of large inflow of young immigrants
B. this was the birth age of the baby boomers.
C. the large number born during WW II reached this age bracket
D. those who were born in the period of baby boom reached this age
bracket
9. Up to the end of WW II, there were ______waves of large-scale emigration
to the United States.
A. four B. two
C. three D. None of the above
10. Between 1845 and 1854, about 1.5 million Irishmen emigrated to United
States because of __________.
A. famine B. English oppression
C. war D. Both A & B
11. During the third wave of immigration from 1890 to 1910, many came from
____.
A. Britain and the Netherlands B. Austria-Hungary and Russia
C. Japan and China D. Mexico and Cuba
12. According to historians and specialists in demography, there are _____
great population movement(s) in the history of the United States.
A. four B. three
C. five D. None of the above
13. In the last great population movement, a large number of people moved to
______.
A. the Northwest B. the sunbelt areas
C. the South D. the Southwest
14. Between 1960 and 1990, a large number of people moved from_____.
A. core cities to the suburbs B. rural areas to cities
C. small cities to large cities D. None of the above
15. The current situation of African-Americans presents ________.
A. a favorable picture B. a negative picture
C. a mixed picture D. an encouraging picture
16. Although legal, official discrimination has been abolished _______.
A. discrimination in employment still exists
B. discrimination in university admission still exists
C. poverty rate of the blacks is the highest among all racial and
ethnic groups
D. inequality and subtle discrimination still exist
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.D 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.D
Chapter15
1. The result of the War with Mexico in 1846 was _______.
A. American annexation of California and New Mexico
B. the independence of California and New Mexico
C. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico for the annexation of
California and New Mexico
D. a payment of 15 million U.S. dollars to Mexico
2. During the drafting of the Declaration of Independence and the drafting
of the Constitution, the issue of Negro slavery was _____.
A. not raised
B. raised but voted down
C. bitterly debated
D. raised but because of strong southern opposition it was put aside
for greater objective
3. Slave labor was widespread in the south because______.
A. the cold weather in the north was not suitable for Negro slaves
B. Negro slaves could not cope with machines in factories in the north
C. Negro Slaves were best suited for the kind of plantation economy in
the south
D. the north world not allow slavery to spread into their states
4. In the early 1850s, with the westward movement, the slavery issue became a serious political issue endangering the unity of the country because
_____.
A. whether the future states formed as a result of the westward
movement should be free or slave world affect the balance of power
in the Senate
B. the south insisted that slavery should be allowed to spread into all
new territories.
C. the north refused to let slavery spread into new territories.
D. the north wanted to put and end to slavery
5. Why did President Lincoln issue the Emancipation Proclamation?
A. Because President Lincoln himself was an abolitionist.
B. Because he wanted to punish the slave-owners in those states which
broke away form the union.
C. Because he had no other alternative.
D. Because he realized that in order to win the war, he should make it
a just war against slavery so as to rally as many people as
possible under the banner of the Federal government.
6. President Lincoln was shot dead five days after________.
A. he made a speech at Gettysburg.
B. general Lee, commanding general of the Confederate army surrendered
his troops .
C. the adoption of the thirteenth Amendment.
D. a military victory of the Union force at Gettysburg.
7. The rapid development of American economy after the Civil War was due to
______.
A. the stable political environment and availability of capital
B. large pool or labor force because of free slaves, immigrants
C. scientific invention and government policy
D. All of the above
8. At the end of the 19th century. One of the strong trends in American
economy was ______.
A. the emergence of big trusts
B. the predominance of small factories
C. the frequent intervention in business by the government
D. the influence of foreign corporations
9. The place that Christopher Columbus landed was _______.
A. India
B. island in Asia
C. the current territory of the United States of America
D. islands in the now West Indies
10. The chief reason for early settlers to come to the New Continent was___.
A. to seek better opportunity
B. to escape religious persecution
C. to satisfy the urge for adventure
D. A and B
11. In American history, the Pilgrim fathers to those who came to Plymouth
on board of __________.
A. a French ship B. a British ship
C. Mayflower D. an Italian ship
12. One of the features of the early colonists which has strong influence on
the formation of American character is ___________.
A. religious intolerance B. respect for personal success
C. stress on community harmony D. None of the above
13. What were the causes of War of Independence?
A. The development of colonial economy led to demand for more power to determine their own business.
B. the cruel exploitation of the colonies by the British government.
C. The sale of in the colonies.
D. A and B.
14. The clash at Concord and Lexington was ________.
A. the beginning of the War or independence?
B. the beginning of the second Continental Conference
C. a minor clash between the British and the colonists with no
significance
D. None of the above
15. The significance of the War of Independence is that _________.
A. it paved the way for the development of capitalism in North America
B. it initiated a period of bourgeois revolution against feudal rule or colonial rule
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
16. The unusual feature of the Articles of Confederation was that______.
A. it provided for no king but a republic and was a written
constitution.
B. it decided that the United States of America was a republic with
central power in Congress, that most powers laid in hands of the
states and it was a written document
C. it was the first written constitution in the world and the emphasis
was on a strong central government
D. the written constitution did not provide for an executive branch
which could function as a government
17. The contradiction that arose at the Constitutional Conference of 1787
was contradiction between________.
A. big states and small states.
B. industrial-commercial interests and landed interests.
C. one house or two houses for Congress.
D. A and B
18. The Bill of Rights Amendments________.
A. dealt with procedural matters
B. included not only procedural guarantees but also guarantees of basic
rights for the individual
C. were adopted merely to satisfy those who opposed the Constitution
D. were reluctantly accepted by the Federalists
20. The implications of the "Manifest Destiny" are______.
A. the legitimacy of American territorial expansion and American
obligation of the Spread of American value and institution.
B. the legitimacy of the westward movement
C. the Americans were doing the Lord's work in spreading American
democracy to other places
D. None of the above
1.C 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.D 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.D 10.D 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.D 18.B 20.A
chapter 16
1. What was the main cause of the Second World War?
A. The main cause was big power struggle for control of the world.
B. It was the worldwide economic crisis.
C. It was the military expansion of Japan, and Germany.
D. Both B and C.
2. The consequence of the three neutrality acts of the United States was____.
A. to make the United States gain time to arm itself
B. to actually help the aggressors by making clear that the United
States would not intervene
C. to get the United States involved in the war
D. to prevent the United States form being dragged into the war
3. American war time objectives were ______.
A. the total defeat of Axis powers
B. the establishment of a postwar world order under American leadership
C. coordination of war efforts of the Soviet Union, Britain and the
United States
D. Both A and B
4. Overlord is a code name for ______.
A. American lend-lease assistance to the Soviet Union
B. the summit conference at Teheran
C. the allied landing at Normandy, France in 1944
D. the North African campaign
5. One of the important decisions at the Yalta Conference was ______.
A. the allied landing at Normandy
B. the setting-up of a world organization, the United Nations, to
manage peace and security after the war
C. coordinated efforts in war against Japan
D. None of the above
6. The most important features in the growth of American economy in the
early 20th century were ______.
A. the use of steam and electricity as chief energy, the development of
lare corporation and the development of railway
B. the development of large corporation, urbanization and the
employment in production of new technology
C. the appearance of airplane, the use of electricity on a large scale
and urbanization
D. the rapid development of industry, railway and large cities
7. The Progressive Movement was ______.
A. an organized campaign with definite goals
B. a movement aiming at exposing the dark sides of society
C. not an organized campaign with efforts to improve people's living
standard
D. a number of diverse efforts aiming at achieving political, social
and economic reforms
8. In the political area, the Progressive Movement wanted to ______.
A. improve the living conditions of urban poor
B. reform the national government
C. change election systems in city and state governments and check
corruption
D. check corruption in city and state governments
9. The Progressive Movement wanted to ______ in order to stop big business
control.
A. initiate strict government regulation
B. have the government to fix prices
C. break up all the big businesses
D. do away with rebates
12. The policy the United States actually pursued in the first two years of
WWI was ______.
A. impartial neutrality B. partial neutrality
C. firm support of the Allies D. Pro-Ally partial neutrality
13. The essence of the Paris Peace Conference was .
A. to bring peace to Europe
B. to carve up the colonies of the defeated countries and to get war
compensation for the victors
C. to settle the colonial problem of the Ottoman Empire
D. to put the Fourteen Points into Practice
14. typically represented the world pattern between the two world wars _____.
A. The Versailles Treaty System
B. The Versailles Treaty System and the Washington Treaty System
C. The collapse of the German, Austro-Hungary and the Ottoman colonial
systems
D. Both B and C
15. Sacco and Vanzetti were sentenced to death and executed because ______.
A. of their radical political views
B. they were guilty of killing two people
C. they were members of KKK
D. they stole $ 16,000
16. One of the serious weaknesses in American economy in the 1920s was _____.
A. uncontrolled speculation in the stock market
B. tariff protection
C. huge profits of big businesses
D. too much control over the banking system
17. The serious economic crisis in the late 1920s and 1930s first brought
about by ______.
A. bank failures B. serious unemployment
C. farm foreclosures D. the stock market crash
18. The Hoover Administration ______ to deal with the economic crisis.
A. took effective measures
B. did not take any measure
C. asked the private sector
D. refused to take strong government action
19. Most of the measures F.D. Roosevelt took in the first hundred days he
was in the White House were to ______.
A. stop bank failures
B. prevent radical actions in the United States
C. prevent the further worsening of the economic situation and lessen
the personal sufferings of the people
D. prevent further worsening of the unstable political situation
20. The purpose of the New Deal measures was to ______.
A. save American democracy and the capitalist system
B. check the worsening of the economic situation
C. help people tie over the difficulty
D. increase American export
1.A 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.A 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.A 16.A 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.A
chapter17
1. Conflicts arose between the United States and the Soviet Union because___.
A. their common enemies Nazi Germany and Japan were defeated
B. They had very different concepts of postwar world order
C. the United States wanted cooperation with the Soviet Union but the
Soviet Union refused.
D. the soviet Union wanted cooperation with the United States but the
Untied States refused
2. The idea of containment was first brought up by ______.
A. Harry Truman B. Franklin D. Roosevelt
C. Marshall D. George Kennan
3. The essence of the Truman Doctrine was ______.
A. to provide economic and military support for any country which was
fighting internal Communist rebels or external Communist pressure
B. to provide aid for Greece and Turkey which were fighting against
Communism
C. to provide economic aid to needy countries
D. to give moral support to the struggle of free people
4. As a result of American economic aid under the Marshall Plan, Western
Europe _____.
A. managed to tie over the difficult years in the late 1940s
B. succeeded in solving the food problem
C. recovered from war destruction and its economy began to develop
D. became prosperous
10. President Truman on March 21, 1947 issued an executive order, initiating
a comprehensive investigation of the loyalty of all federal employees.
This was the beginning of ______.
A. McCarthyism
B. Clearing out Soviet spies
C. widespread persecution of Communists and progressive people
D. persecution of federal employees
11. The trial of Alger Hiss proved ______.
A. that he was a Soviet spy
B. that he did not tell the truth in court
C. that he provided Soviet agent with secret information on atomic
weapon
D. None of the above
12. The Supreme Court played a role in whipping up the anticommunist hysteria
by ______.
A. upholding the constitutionality of the Smith Act
B. convicting 11 high-ranking Communist leaders
C. supporting the trial of Alger Hiss
D. supporting President Truman's executive order
14. The pillar industries for the postwar economic boom were ______.
A. information, space and biotechnology
B. textile, automobile and construction
C. defense, information and housing
D. automobile, housing and defense
16. When ______,this was the beginning of American involvement in Vietnam.
A. the United States decided to provide France with military aid in
their fight in Vietnam
B. the United States started to provide aid for the South Vietnamese
government after the Geneva Conference in 1854
C. the United States sent more and more military advisers to South
Vietnam
D. the United States began to Americanize the war in Vietnam
17. The Paris Agreement was signed by the U.S. and North Vietnam in Jan. 1973
and the fall of Saigon was in ______.
A. April, 1973 B. April, 1975
C. Jan, 1975 D. None of the above
18. The conditions the People's Republic of China set for the establishment
of diplomatic relations with the United States were ______.
A. the withdrawal of the 7th Fleet from the straits and the end of
diplomatic relations with Taiwan
B. the cancellation of the mutual defense treaty and the end of
diplomatic relations with Taiwan.
C. the stop of 7th Fleet patrol in Taiwan straits, the cancellation of
the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations with
Taiwan
D. the withdrawal of all military forces from Taiwan, the cancellation
of the mutual defense treaty and the end of diplomatic relations
with Taiwan
19. New Frontier and War on Poverty were programs initiated by ______.
A. President Kennedy
B. President Johnson
C. Presidents Kennedy and Johnson respectively
D. Presidents Johnson and Kennedy respectively
I. B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.C 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.D 19.C 20.C
Chapter18
1. The United States ranks ______ in the world in the total value of its
economic production.
A. first B. second
C. third D. fourth
2. The following are the factors that have contributed to the development of
the U.S. economy except ______.
A. the vast space and resources of the land
B. the ideals of freedom and economic opportunity
C. English as its national language
D. hard work by the people
3. Which of the following is not true of the U.S. economy?
A. It is based largely on a free enterprise system.
B. There is little government involvement in the economy
C. It is one of the least regulated economies in the world.
D. Many of the nation's basic industries are represented by only a few
major corporations.
16. Which of the following is not true of U.S. foreign trade?
A. Canada and Japan are the country's chief trading partners.
B. The U.S. share of world trade has increased in recent years.
C. Since the mid-1960s, the value of imports has usually been much
higher than the value of exports.
D. Traditionally, the value of U.S. exports has exceeded, or been about
the same as, the value of U.S. imports.
17. What are the leading U.S. exports?
A. Mineral fuels.
B. Iron and steel.
C. Paper and newsprint.
D. Machinery and transportation equipment.
18. What are the leading U.S. imports?
A. Machinery and transportation equipment.
B. Scientific measuring equipment.
C. Textile fibers.
D. All of the above.
19. What are the problems the U.S. economy has faced fro time to time?
A. Recessions. B. Depressions.
C. Inflation. D. All of the above.
20. What percentage of the population is classified by the U.S. government as
poor?
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%.
1.A 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.D 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.D 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.D 20.C
Chapter19
1. The federal judicial system consists of ______.
A. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals and 91 district courts
B. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 89 district courts, 3
courts of special jurisdiction
C. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts, 3
courts of special jurisdiction
D. one supreme court, 11 courts of appeals, 91 district courts, 2
courts for the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto
Rico
2. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in ______.
A. all kinds of cases
B. two kinds of cases
C. cases involving foreign citizens
D. cases involving a state
3. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court _____.
A. has much greater power than other justices of the Supreme Court
B. has no greater voting power than other justices of the Supreme Court
C. has greater say in deciding a case
D. has greater voting power than other justices of the Supreme Court
4. Political parties are the basis of the American political system ______.
A. but there is no provision in the Constitution for political parties
B. and the Constitution has clear provision
C. but the founding fathers had strong apprehension of political
parties
D. Both A and C
5. There have been ______ periods in the development of American political
parties in the United States.
A. four B. three
C. five D. two
6. The first period if the party system refers to the appearance of ______.
A. the Federalists
B. the Anti-Federalists
C. the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists
D. the Democratic-Republicans and the Anti-Federalists
7. The Federalists advocated ______.
A. a strong federal governments
B. strong state government
C. the adoption of Bill of Rights
D. limits on the federal government
8. The Democratic Party led by Andrew Jackson represented the interests of
______.
A. northern industrialists B. southern slave owners
C. frontiersmen D. Both B and C
9. Abraham Lincoln was elected President as candidate of _____.
A. the Democratic Party B. the Republican Party
C. the Whig Party D. None of the above
10. From the 1860s to the 1920s, the Republican Party dominated the political
scene and from the 1930s to the 1970s,______ was in power most of the
time.
A. the Democratic Party B. the Republican Party
C. no party D. None of the above
11. The two major parties today have ______ difference in policy orientation.
A. no B. little
C. some D. great
12. In terms of organization, the two major parties ______.
A. have tight organizational structure
B. have strong leadership at the national level
C. are well organized at the grass roots level
D. are merely political forces coming together in a loose way
13. In the past few decades, the influence of political parties has been
declining ______.
A. so the political parties are no longer important
B. so an independent presidential candidate can win a national election
C. but without the backing of a political party, a presidential
candidate still cannot win
D. so the presidential election has become more unpredictable
14. In 1992 ______ ran for the President as an independent candidate.
A. Bill Clinton B. Ross Perot
C. Bob Dole D. George Bush
15. When the delegates met at Philadelphia in 1787, their task was ______.
A. to write a new constitution
B. to see what they can do about the Articles of Confederation
C. to design a new form of government
D. to revise the Articles of Confederation
16. The writers of the Constitution worked out the Constitution worked out
the checks and balances in order to ______.
A. prevent the government from misusing its power
B. prevent the government from being strong
C. pacify those who opposed the Constitution
D. meet the demands of small states.
20. The House Speaker and the temporary President of the Senate are usually
______.
A. elected by the majority party
B. chosen from the majority and minority parties
C. members of the majority party
D. chosen freely from the Congressmen and Senators
1.C 2.B 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.A 11.C 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.C
Chapter20
1. public and private colleges and universities and community colleges offer
______.
A. "continuing education" programs of associate degrees
B. graduate studies professional training
C. professional training
D. All of the above
2. There is ______ age limit for adult education.
A. no B. some
C. definite D. None of the above
3. The 1983 report "A Nation At Risk" cited as example of the decline of
educational standards ______.
A. high rates of adult illiteracy
B. declining SAT scores
C. low scores of American students in key subjects as compared with
scores of students of other countries
D. All of the above
4. The report listed as new basics ______.
A. English, mathematics, computer, social studies
B. science, mathematics, social studies, foreign language
C. English, science, social studies, mathematics, computer
D. English, science, computer, social studies
5. The two focuses of the education reforms in the mid-1980s were: ______.
A. the raising of the standards of teaching and the reform in
curriculum
B. the raising of the standards of teaching and learning and the
restructuring of the schools
C. the raising of the standards of teaching and the improvement of the
standards of learning
D. None of the above
6. One of the six goals set by President Bush in his " America 2000" Plan is
______.
A. elimination of drugs and violence from school
B. the increase of high-school graduation rate to 86%
C. competence in forging language, mathematics, science, history and
geography
D. the increase of adult literacy rate
7. Since 1991, the goals set in the plan ______.
A. have been largely achieved
B. have largely not been achieved
C. have been achieved in some significant areas
D. have not been achieved at all
8. To many Americans, education is important because ______.
A. it contributes to the success of individuals
B. it contributes to the strengthening of national strength
C. it prepares the young people for future development
D. Both A and B
9. Elementary and secondary education is ______.
A. free
B. compulsory
C. free and attendance is required by law
D. Both B and C
10. American schools are divided into ______.
A. public schools and private ones
B. Public schools, private schools and community schools
C. coeducation schools and single sex schools.
D. national schools and state-run schools
11. In the United States, educational policies are determined by ______.
A. the federal government B. female only institutions
C. single sex institutions D. coeducation institutions
12. In the United States, educational policies are determined by ______.
A. the federal government
B. the state and board of trustees in some states
C. local school district
D. board of trustees
13. The governing board of school district is responsible for ______.
A. the hiring of teachers and staff
B. the designing of a suitable curriculum
C. the compiling and approving of budget
D. All of the above
14. High schools are made up of ______ different types of schools with
somewhat different tasks.
A. four B. three
C. five D. None of the above
15. Higher education in the United States consists of ______ types of
institutions.
A. four B. five
C. six D. seven
16. The universities that offer doctoral degrees are ______.
A. research universities
B. doctoral universities
C. A and B and some specialized institutions
D. Both A and B
17. Board of trustees is composed chiefly of laymen because ______.
A. they are more likely to represent public interests
B. they have more commonsense and less professional bias
C. their interests are affected by board decisions
D. None of the above
18. There is ______ difference between tuition rates in public and private
institutions of higher learning.
A. no B. significant
C. some D. None of the above
19. In face of the rising cost for higher education, fields of graduate study
that are favored by students are those that ______.
A. offer greater professional satisfaction
B. make graduates more easily employed
C. offer easy enrollment
D. offer more rewarding jobs in terms of payment
20. Community college ______.
A. offers bachelor degrees B. offers associate degrees.
C. is a two-year college D. Both B and C
1.D 2.A 3.D 4.C 5. B 6.A 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.A 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.B 15.C 16.C 17.A 18.B 19.D 20.D
chapter 21
1. Poor Richard's Almanac contained ________ .
A. many proverbs B. Franklin's autobiography
C. voyages to the new land D. climates and crops
2. In the early 19th century, New York City was ________.
A. the capital of the United States
B. the center of Harlem Renaissance
C. the center of knickerbockers
D. None of the above
3. Washington Irving's most famous book The Sketch book contains _______ .
A. The Legend of Sleepy Hollow B. Rip Van Winkle
C. A History of New York D. Both A and B
4. Washington Irving fills the stories with the "local color" of ______ .
A. New York City
B. Hudson River valley near New York
C. New York state
D. New England
5. When Rip Van Winkle woke up and went back to his village, he found he had
slept in the hill for _______ .
A. 10 years B. 20 years
C. 50 years D. None of the above
6. Emerson _______ Transcendentalist.
A. called himself B. did not like the term
C. never called himself D. created the term
7. In the book "Nature", Emerson stated that ________ .
A. man's relationship with nature transcends the idea of usefulness
B. nature is useful to man
C. nature is independent of man and has nothing to do with man
D. nature can only be used by man
8. Nathaniel Hawthorne was one of those who ______ transcendentalism.
A. supported B. was indifferent to
C. attacked D. had nothing to do with
9. The book The Scarlet Letter ends with Dimmesdale _______ .
A. running away with Hester
B. killing himself out of guilt
C. overcoming his sense of guilt
D. making a public confession and falling dead in the arms of Hester
10. The locality in Mark Twain's works was usually somewhere along _______.
A. the Hudson River B. the Mississippi River
C. the Missouri River D. the transcontinental railway
11. In Leaves of Grass Walt Whitman sang praise of _______ .
A. equality
B. equality, democracy and the common people
C. democracy
D. democracy and the common people
12. Most of the poems written by Emily Dickinson were _______ .
A. lost B. published during her lifetime
C. buried with her D. published after her death
13. The two great themes of Dickinson's poetry were _______.
A. death and search for faith B. the grave and the soul
C. the grave and faith D. death and the soul
14. The novel Sister Carrie describes ________ .
A. the death of Hurstwood
B. the degeneration of Carrie Meeber
C. how Carrie climbed up the social ladder
D. Carrie's love affair with Drouet
15. T. S. Eliot's The Waste Land is important because it ______ .
A. deals with the cultural glories of the past
B. praises the lost generation
C. is highly traditional
D. reveals the spiritual crisis of post-WWI Europe and it is original
in form
16. The "Lost Generation" refers to those who _______ .
A. have no ambition in life
B. are physically and spiritually impotent
C. are homeless
D. are expatriates
17. In the Old Man and the Sea, Hemingway praises the old fisherman's ______.
A. courage to face the risks of the high seas
B. courage to fight the sharks
C. courage to accept defeat of not catching anything forh 84 days
D. attitude towards defeat and failure
18. Langston Hughes was noted for his _______ .
A. true description of urban Blacks in poetry
B. unconventional portrayal of Harlem
C. singing of black America
D. None of the above
19. In the Native Son, Richard Wright makes readers see that _____ .
A. the Blacks are alienated
B. the social situation of Bigger Thomas' tragedy
C. the Blacks are bitter
D. the life of the Blacks is miserable
1.A 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.D 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.A 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.B 20 C
Chapter23
1. Canada is located in ________.
A. the Southern Hemisphere B. The Northern Hemisphere
C. the Western Hemisphere D. The Eastern Hemisphere
2. Canada is bounded on the east by ________.
A. the Pacific Ocean B. the Atlantic Ocean
C. the Indian Ocean D. the Arctic Ocean
3. Nearly ________of the land in Canada has no permanent population.
A. half B. two-thirds
C. 89% D. 95%
4. Canada's largest city is _________.
A. Montreal B. Toronto
C. Ottawa D. Vancouver
5. The longest river in Canada is _________.
A. the Mackenzie B. the St. Lawrence
C. the Severn D. the Yukon
6. The St. Lawrence and ________together form an important transportation
network for eastern Canada.
A. the Mackenzie
Ｂ．Ｇreat lakes
C the Yukon
D.Hudson bay
7. The Interior Plains lie between________ and _______ .
A. the Canadian Shield/the Appalachian Region
B. the Canadian Shield/the Rocky Mountains
C. the Great Lakes/the Arctic Islands
D. the Appalachian Region/the Great Lakes
8. The name "Canada" is thought to be derived from kanata, an Indian word
meaning _______.
A. a guitar B. a meeting place
C. a settlement D. a piece of land
9. Who was the first European to discover Canada?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
10. Who founded the first permanent settlements at Quebec and Montreal on the
St. Lawrence River?
A. John Cabot. B. Jacques Cartier.
C. Samuel de Champlain D. Henry Hudson.
11. Why were the French troops in Canada defeated by the British during the
Seven Years' War?
A. Because they were not used to the weather in Canada.
B. Because they did not get support from the local people.
C. Because they did not receive the supplies they needed so badly.
D. Because the British had larger and better settlements in Canada.
12. Under______ , the French Canadian farming economy of the St. Lawrence
valley and its language, religion, and customs continued unchanged.
A. the Quebec Act of 1774
B. the Treaty of Paris in 1763
C. the Constitutional Act of 1791
D. the Act of Union in 1840
13. When was Canada divided into Upper Canada (English-speaking)and Lower
Canada (French-speaking)?
A. In 1763 B. In 1774
C. In 1791 D. In 1840
14. When was Canada given internal self-government?
A. In 1791 B. In 1840
C. In 1848 D. In 1867
15. Under ________ , the provinces of Canada, New Brunswick, and Nova Scotia
were united to form the Do-minion of Canada.
A. the Act of Union in 1840
B. the British North America Act of 1867
C. the Quebec Act of 1774
D. the Constitutional Act of 1791
16. Who was the first prime minister of the new Canada?
A. Sir John Macdonald. B. Sir Wilfrid Laurier.
C. Robert Borden. D. Mackenzie King.
17. In 1896 _______ took over and the country was ruled under Sir Wilfrid
Laurier.
A. the Conservative Party B. the Liberal Party
C. the Labor Party D. the New Democratic Party
18. In 1905 two more provinces were created. They were_______ .
A. Ontario and Quebec
B. Manitoba and British Columbia
C. Alberta and Saskatchewan
D. Newfoundland and Prince Edward Island
19. In 1931 by_______ Canada was formally declared to be a sovereign nation
and became a member of the Common-wealth of Nations.
A. the Peace Treaty of 1919 B. the Statute of Westminster
C. the Meek Lake Accord D. the constitution Act of 1982
20. In 1949 _______ became Canada's tenth province.
A. Newfoundland B. Prince Edward Island
C. Labrador D. British Columbia
1.C 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.b 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.A
Chapter27
1. Like the island continent of Antarctica, Australia is located entirely in
______.
A. the Northern Hemisphere B. the Southern Hemisphere
C. the North Pole D. the South Pole
2. With regard to its size, Australia is ______ country in the world.
A. the third largest B. the fourth largest
C. the fifth largest D. the sixth largest
3. The geographical structure of Australia is generally divided into three
topographical regions: ______.
A. the Eastern Plateau, the Central highlands and the Western Lowlands
B. the Central Plateau, the Western Highlands and the Eastern Lowlands
C. the Western Plateau, the Eastern highlands and the Central Eastern
Lowlands
D. the Central Plateau, the Western highlands and the Eastern Lowlands
4. Although Australia has a large area, ______ of the continent is desert or
semi-desert.
A. one third B. two thirds
C. half D. more than half
5. Most Australians live on the cool, wet, forested ______.
A. southeast coastland B. southwest coastland
C. northeast coastland D. northwest coastland
6. The only places in Australia that experience regular winter snowfall and
icy conditions are ______.
A. the eastern coastal areas of Queensland
B. the Blue Mountains
C. the New England Tableland
D. the highest peaks of the Snowy Mountains and Victorian Highlands
9. Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people constitute ______of
Australia's population.
A. 1% B. 1.5%
C. 2% D. 2.5%
10. Why has Australia always been a continent with few people?
A. Because Australia is too far away from Europe.
B. Because Australia is the least mountainous and most level of the
world's continents.
C. Because Australia is separated from the rest of the world by seas.
D. Because most of the continent is hot and dry.
11. Australia is politically divided into _____ states and _____ territories.
A. four/three B. five/two
C. six/three D. six/two
12. Australia is a nation of immigrants because the overwhelming majority of
the Australian population are ______.
A. white
B. middle class people
C. tourists from other countries
D. immigrants or their descendants
13. Why is Australia's New South Wales called the premier state?
A. Because it was the first colony established by Britain in 1788.
B. Because it is the biggest state in Australia.
C. Because it is the most important state in Australia.
D. Because it has the largest population in Australia.
14. The only city on the western coast which has a population of more than
one million is ______.
A. Darwin B. Perth
C. the Gold Coast D. Brisbane
15. The Great Barrier Reef is included on the World Heritage list because___.
A. it has the most beautiful seascape in the world
B. it has the greatest number of islands in the world
C. it has the most diverse and complex marine life in the world
D. it has the longest coast in the world
16. Adelaide, the capital of South Australia, is internationally known for
its ______.
A. wine B. beautiful scenery
C. valuable minerals D. arts festival
17. Western Australia is the biggest Australian state, but its population is
only ______ of the country's population.
A. 9% B. 10%
C. 11% D. 12%
18. Tasmania is an island which lies ______ of the Australian mainland.
A. north of the northeastern corner
B. south of the southeastern corner
C. east of the northeastern comer
D. west of the southeastern corner
19. Why is the southern area of the Northern Territory called the Red Centre
of Australia?
A. Because Uluru is located there.
B. Because it is extremely hot and dry.
C. Because it consists of miles and miles of red-sand desert and
mountain ranges.
D. Because it lies in the tropics.
20. Canberra, the capital of Australia, got its name from the word
"Canburry",which is an Aboriginal word meaning ______.
A. "meeting place" B. "beautiful garden"
C. "sacred site" D. "capital city"
1.B 2.D 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.D 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.D 11.D 12.D 13.A 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.A
chapter33
1. New Zealand is situated about 1, 500 km _______.
A. north-west of Australia B. south-east of Australia
C. north-east of Australia D. south-west of Australia
2. Because the country is very narrow, no place in New Zealand is more than
______ from the sea.
A. 100 km B. 110 km
C. 120 km D. 150 km
3. New Zealand is the first country in the world to get the new day because
_______ .
A. it is just east of the International Date Line
B. it is just west of the International Date Line
C. it is located halfway between the equator and the South Pole
D. it is located in the Southern Pacific Ocean
4. A fault line runs the length of New Zealand, which means that _______.
A. it often has storms B. it often has volcanoes
C. it often has earthquakes D. it often has droughts
5. The Southern Alps, with Mt Cook in the center, runs almost the whole
length of ______ .
A. New Zealand B. North Island
C. South Island D. Stewart Island
6. The longest river in New Zealand is ________ .
A. the Clutha River B. the Wanganui
C. the Rangitata D. the Waikato
7. The following are the volcanic mountains in North Island except ________ .
A. Ruapehu B. Mt Cook
C. Ngaurohoe D. Tongariro
8. The most serious potential natural disasters in New Zealand are _______ .
A. storms and earthquakes B. volcanoes and floods
C. earthquakes and volcanoes D. floods and storms
9. Except in the west of the Southern Alps, the climate in New Zealand is
generally _______ .
A. cold
B. hot
C. neither very hot nor very cold
D. dry
10. _______ is the flightless bird which has become a symbol of New Zealand.
A. Emu B. Kiwi
C. Weka D. Pukeko
11. The first European to visit New Zealand was _______ .
A. Kupe B. Abel Tasman
C. William Hobson D.James Cook
12. Why was the British government interested in New Zealand?
A. Trade with New Zealand was economically important.
B. There were no laws to protect Maori rights in dealings with white
settlers.
C. The French government was taking an interest in New Zealand, too.
D. All of the above.
13. Modern New Zealand was founded on the basis of _____ signed between
Maoris and British settlers in 1840.
A. Maoritanga B. Aotearoa
C. the Treaty of Waitangi D. the Treaty of ANZUS
14. ________ is the Maori name for New Zealand, meaning land of the long,
white cloud'.
A. Waitangi B. Kiwi
C. Aotearoa D. Maoritanga
15. The Maori believe that their ancestors, and all living things in the
world, were descended from _______ .
A. the sky B. the land
C. the God D. the gods
16. According to Maori oral history, New Zealand was discovered by _______.
A. Abel Tasman B. James Cook
C. Kupe D. Maui
17. In 1893 New Zealand became the first country in the world _______ .
A. to recognize Maori rights of self-determination
B. go give women the vote
C. to introduce procedures for handling industrial disputes
D. to adopt the 40-hour working week
18. In 1891-1911 (under the Liberal-Labor Party) and 1935-1947 (under Labor)
New Zealand won a world reputation of _______.
A. its social experimentation
B. its high standard of living
C. its economic achievements
D. its independent foreign policy
19. Which of the following is not true about the Maori protest movement?
A. It is popular with younger urban Maoris.
B. It aims to gain recognition for their language, values and culture
in national life.
C. It demands compensation for their language, values and culture in
national life.
D. The New Zealand government has never paid any attention to the
movement.
20. Maoris have adopted many aspects of ______ and more and more New
Zealanders now share in the rich heritage of _______.
A. American culture/Asian culture
B. Western culture/Asian culture
C. American culture/Maori culture
D. Western culture/Maori culture
1. B 2. B 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.D 20.D
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